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The US, Britain, France and along with the USSR, they divided Germany into 4 sectors and disarmed most of Germany then launched a continental hunt for all Nazis involved with either War Crimes and/or crimes against humanity (Holocaust).

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Q: How did the US Britain and France choose to handle Germany after the war world 2?
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What led to Britain's rise to global prominence in the mid 1700?

1. England's/Britain's rise had begun especially under Elizabeth I. Like most global powers of the time, Britain was on the Atlantic seaboard, which was an immense geographical advantage. (Compare with Spain, Portugal, the Netherlands). 2. Following the dismissal of the dynastically minded, pro-French, absolutist, Catholic (or crypto-Catholic) monarchs Charles I and II and James II, the Anglo-British people and their own aristocracy wielded 'national' political power and became increasingly prosperous. There was a newly found confidence and a sense of purpose. 3. Other key factors included the growing inability of France to handle its domestic affairs competently (from the 1740s onwards) - and the decline of Spain, too. 4. Especially in 1750s and the Seven Years' War (1756-63) Britain, under the de facto leadership of its first consciously 'imperialist' leader, Pitt the Elder, pursued a vigorous policy of overseas expansion, especially in North America and India ...


How were World War 1 an World War 2 alike?

Note: this answer only discusses similarities. There were of course many differences not mentioned. Both wars involved many different countries, multiple theaters of war, and extreme destruction and casualties--both with soldiers and civilians. Both were very much Total War, where the participants made production and fighting their number one priority. Each time the UK, France, and Russia were later joined by the United States to combat Germany. Also, Italy twice began on the German side and later in the war switched to join the Allies. World War II was in many ways a continuation of WWI because the Treaty of Versailles failed to handle Germany properly. (Basically, it made them angrier.) A primary cause of both wars was competing ideas of nationalism, which means a country--Germany in both cases, to some extent--seeks to expand or become stronger.


What is a flail mace?

its a spiked our jagged metal ball attached to a chain that is attatced to a handle.


How and why has the power and the role of the monarchy changed through time?

Monarchy has been the go to form of government since the beginning of time. Theoretically a monarchy is practical. People elect one person to power and let the elected official handle problems that effect people on an individual level but are too large for the individual to handle themselves (i.e. a war or a bad economy). Unfortunately, time has shown that power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely. It is because of the power hungry corrupt officials that monarchy has lost some of the confidence entrusted in the system. For example, in Great Britain, the Magna Carta of 1215 began the reduction of monarch power that continued until the monarchs assumed the figurehead role that they hold today.


Have the french ever won a war?

the french and Indians never went to war,the Indians fought on the french's side to defeat the british . the french and british went to war because they both wanted world power and to gain more money and land.

Related questions

How did the US Britain and France choose to handle Germany after the war?

You should specify whether you are asking about WW I or WW II, not just "the war".


The U.S Britain and France thought the best way to handle Germany after the war was to?

help the country rebuild


The U.S. Britain and France thought the best way to handle Germany after the war was to?

help the country rebuild


The U.S. Britain and France thought the best way to handle Germany after the war was to .?

help the country rebuild


How did the US Britain and France thought the best way to handle Germany after the war was?

on A+LS: Help the country rebulid


In the years before the war why did Britain and France refuse the Russian overtures for an alliance?

Britain and France sees both Russia and Germany as potential threats ,after the Russian revolution Russia was hitting hard in world politics and economy so Britain and France hoped for a typical war between Russia and Germany (as Germany was becoming the world superpower ).Their was that If Russia And Germany could collide one would destroy another and there will be at least one enemy wipped out or weekend and would be easy to handle,this strategy was called as satisfying spree but unfortunately Russia and Germany came under an agreement not to attack each other ,that's why France and Britain refuses the Russian overtures for alliance though they gave (as announced) their full support to Russia when Russia managed to stop Germany's progress in Stalingrad .


Did Germany win WW1?

Yes, if it wasn't for the entrance of USA in the war on the allied side, Germany would have won, because Russia had withdrew from the war in the same year. This allowed the central powers to focus all their military power on the western front which would have been too much for the major allied powers, Britain and France, to handle.


Which country joined the allies after Hitler's army attacked it in June of 1941?

well, Britain and France promised scandanavia to Hitler, in agreement that he wouldn't invade them. Hitler of course backstabbed the two of them, starting the war and causing Britain and France to declare war on Germany. also, russia and Germany were allies for awhile, both of them being dicatorships/ fachists (sp*), but Hitler betrayed them and invaded. the Germans had to leave though, they couldn't handle the Russian winter. so i think you're looking for russia. hope this helps.


What would have happened to Poland if Britain had not gone to war over them?

What happened to Poland was not affected in the least bit by the British declaring war over the German invasion of Poland. Britain was too far away to help the Poles in any way whatsoever. Germany was between Poland and Britain. So what happened to Poland would have happened if the British had not declared war. The Russians invaded Poland from the east two weeks after Germany invaded Poland from the west. Hitler and Stalin were still partners at that point, and had agreed to split Poland down the middle between them. Nobody declared war on Russia over that. I suppose having to deal with Germany first gave Britain and France all they could try to handle. Two years later Hitler obliged by turning on his partner and attacking the Soviet Union, making an "ally" of the Russians in the fight against Germany.


Where did George Handle live?

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What are the release dates for Too Hot to Handle - 1938?

Too Hot to Handle - 1938 was released on: USA: 16 September 1938 France: 21 December 1938 Netherlands: 13 January 1939 Finland: 9 March 1939 Denmark: 18 April 1939 Portugal: 21 April 1939 Germany: October 1939 West Germany: 1980 West Germany: 1 September 1980 (TV premiere)


Was Hitler happy with the Munich Agreement?

Yes, Hitler obtained what he wanted from both Britain and France. This allowed him to proceed with his seizure of the Sudentland, which led to the eventual absorption of Czechoslovakia by the Third Reich. If either France or Britain would have been willing to stand up to Hitler militarily, then Hitler would have been forced to back down. The reason being that the Wehrmacht was not ready to handle a 2 front war.