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The "parties on the deed" are the owners of the property. The proceeds go to the owners. The proceeds wil be split 50-50 if there is a conflict about the distribution and as long as there is no language in the deed creating a different scheme of ownership.

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16y ago

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If payments have been made to the second mortgage holder but not to the first Mortgage holder can the first mortgage holder reclaim any of those payments from the second mortgage holder?

No. However, in the case of a foreclosure sale (or any sale), the first lien holder will always be made whole (paid completely) before any sale proceeds are applied to the subordinate liens.


Does mortgage holder or deed holder sign at closing?

If the property is subject to a mortgage the mortgage must be paid off at the time of the sale of the property to a new owner. The holder of the mortgage must provide a signed release of the mortgage that can be recorded in the land records.The owner of the property signs the deed that transfers the property to the new owner.The new owner of the property signs the new mortgage.


When creditor puts lien on your home will mortgage company make you pay it or foreclose on your home?

As long as you keep making your mortgage payments the bank can't foreclose. However, you cannot refinance or sell the property until the lien is paid. If you sell, the net proceeds after paying off the mortgage would go to the lien holder to satisfy that lien.As long as you keep making your mortgage payments the bank can't foreclose. However, you cannot refinance or sell the property until the lien is paid. If you sell, the net proceeds after paying off the mortgage would go to the lien holder to satisfy that lien.As long as you keep making your mortgage payments the bank can't foreclose. However, you cannot refinance or sell the property until the lien is paid. If you sell, the net proceeds after paying off the mortgage would go to the lien holder to satisfy that lien.As long as you keep making your mortgage payments the bank can't foreclose. However, you cannot refinance or sell the property until the lien is paid. If you sell, the net proceeds after paying off the mortgage would go to the lien holder to satisfy that lien.


Can a second mortgage holder foreclose on a first bank mortgage holder?

yes, but it rarely happens.


Can a second mortgage foreclose without letting the first mortgage know?

The only way would be for the 2nd mortgage holder to "buy out" or "pay off" the 1st mortgage holder. Even then, I believe most states require that the 1st mortgage holder receive notification.


If both 1st and 2nd mortgages are delinquent. Can the holder of the second mortgage start foreclose proceedigs?

Yes. However, that lender would take possession of the property subject to the first mortgage. When they sell the property the first mortgagee gets paid first from any proceeds.


Why does the second mortgage holder have to approve of the first mortgage refinance?

The second mortgage holder typically needs to approve the first mortgage refinance because they hold a subordinate position to the first mortgage. Refinancing the first mortgage could impact the second mortgage holder's position, so their consent is often required to make changes to the primary loan.


What happens to a mortgage loan when the sole loan holder dies and the property is titled Joint tenants with full rights of suvivorship?

The mortgage obligation remains on the property. If the holder of the mortgage dies then her heirs own the mortgage.


If payments have been made to the second mortgage but not to the first Mortgage can the first mortgage holder reclaim any of those payments from the second mortgage holder?

No, the first lien hold cannot claim or collect any monies from the 2nd lien holder. The lien holders sole recourse is with the borrower.


If a bank refinances a first mortgage and there is a second mortgage on the property who does the first mortgage belong too?

The new bank in which the refinance mortgage loan has been taken from becomes the new owner of the first mortgage at the closing table. As for the second mortgage, the second mortgage holder remains the same. Before the first mortgage can close with the new lender, however, they must agree to re-subordinate the second mortgage along with their new one. It is not uncommon. I hope this information helps. Best of luck! Regards, Total Mortgage Services


What happens to your mortgage if your condo is condemned in California?

You can find the answer you want by asking the mortgage holder.


Can the second mortgage holder force the sell of your home?

Yes. If you do not pay the 2nd mortgage, you can lose your home in a foreclosure sale. The difference between the first and 2nd mortgage holder in that case varies according to the unit of government. The law in the United States is according to state law. At one time in this state, the first mortgage holder had certain rights concerning whether or not to foreclose. There was a time period when the first mortgage holder had the chance to try to sell the first mortgage or something like that. I have not kept up with all the changes in the law involving second mortgages. Still, when there is a foreclosure, the first mortgage holder gets paid off first. If there is anything left, the second mortgage holder gets paid. Some commercial property has as much as a fifth mortgage.