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Not Entirely. The initial "whom" in this sentence is the subject of the sentence. When you are using the word "who" or "whom" you've got to pay attention to what the "who" is acting as. When "who" is referring to the subject, you leave off the -m, on "whom," but when you are talking about the direct object of the sentence, then "whom" is perfectly acceptable.

So Grammatically speaking "Who has whom now" would be the correct form of this sentence.

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Whom is used as the object of the sentence and whoas the subject (the one performing the action), therefore "Who has whom now."

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Q: Is 'Whom has whom now' correct?
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