yes. 32 is divisible by 8 because 8 x 4 = 32 so if you divide 32 y 8 you get 4.
8 added to 4952 makes it divisible by 32
All multiples of 32, which is an infinite number.
Not entirely. If the number is 4, then 4/2 = 2, and 4/4 = 1, but dividing by 8 does not produce a whole number. 4/8 = .5 or 1/2. This is not always true, but it can be true if the number is something like 32, where 32/2 = 16, 32/4 = 8, and 32/8 = 4.
All numbers in the 8x table. 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56, 64... etc.
By: 1 2 4 8 16 32 64 and 128
The number 32 is divisible by 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, and 32.
32 is divisible by all its factors. Factors for 32 are: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32
* 8 * 16
Look at 12. Not divisible by 8 but divisible by 4 and 2. Look at 4. Same thing. The equation 8x-4 will give you any number divisible by 4 and 2, but not 8 32 is divisable by all three. 8x4=32, 2x16=32
4 x 4 = 16 2 x 8 = 16 8 x 4 = 32 4 x 8 = 32...
8, 16, 24, 32... All multiples of 8 are also divisible by 2 and 4.
8 added to 4952 makes it divisible by 32
Every other number: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40... No, a number can be divisible by 4 but not divisible by 8; an example is 12.
They are both divisible by 1, 2, 4, and 8.
How about 8 itself or perhaps 16
All multiples of 32, which is an infinite number.
64 is divisible by 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64.