in the state of California a verbal agreement IS legally binding
MoreBut proving one is often challenging. Take notes with dates & times and document everything. MoreFor the most part, as long as all the requirements for a valid contract are present (capacity, mutual assent, consideration) are present, it doesn't matter one bit whether it's verbal or in writing.However, certain types of contracts do have to be in writing to be valid, under laws known collectively as the "Statute of Frauds." These types of contracts include sales of land and other interests in real property, agreements which, by their own terms, cannot be performed within a year, and contracts for sales of goods priced over $500.
For almost all other agreements, writing is not necessary for them to be legally binding. However, as mentioned above, proving the existence, and exact terms, of a verbal agreement is often very difficult (it boils down to a "he said, she said" matter), so putting any important agreement in writing, even if it isn't technically covered by the Statute of Frauds, is always a good idea.
You can take the verbal agreement to the court of law and get a judgment against them. However, it will ruin their credit but you won't be able to enforce the judgment.
This would violate the statue of frauds. The sale of property must be in writing to be valid.
I only know Massachusetts law on water, which states that a tenant (except in a single family home) can only be charged for water if: 1. The unit has its own meter; 2. The unit has low-flow plumbing; 3. The local inspector has approved the plumbing; and 4. It's written in the rental agreement. You should check the laws of your state.
The legal requirements to rent a home in the state of Virginia will include having the money to pay the rent as well as giving written notice in a timely manner before moving out. Individual landlords will have different rules for renting.
Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.
Yes.
A lease involves real property. All agreements dealing with real property must be in writing.
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If she is the only person listed on the mortgage or lease agreement and his name is not on it she should be able to get a trespassing warrant and keep him out of it since he has no legal right to it.
There is no license required to rent out a room. It can be a verbal agreement between you and another individual. You should make a contract to protect both parties interests though.
Whether or not a home is forfeited depends on the state or federal homestead exemption, and if the lender is willing to reaffirm the loan agreement. Second mortgages are considered secured debt and have the same legal standing as first mortgages.
i need a copy of a home rental agreement