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No! It is only a hyposthesis based on some of the writings of Papias from the second part of second century that the Matthew gospel was originally writeen in Hebrew or Aramaic. This hypothesis has been propounded mainly by Russellites who call themselves as 'Johovah's Witnesses!' The Matthew Gospel in Greek does not bear any mark of translation. There is no such thing as Hebrew original of the gospel of Matthew either in the past or in the present.

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Q: Is the Hebrew original of the gospel of Matthew still exist today?
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What name did Matthew use before Jesus renamed him?

A:The original New Testament gospel, now known as Mark's Gospel, refers to Levi, son of Alphaeus, as a tax collector. However, for some reason, Mark never again refers to Levi, but introduces other disciples, including Matthew (verse 3:18) and James, son of Alphaeus. The implication is that Levi just disappeared after being called to follow Jesus, unless one of the twelve disciples listed in Mark 3:16-19 must be another name for Levi. Matthew's Gospel, which is now known to have been based on Mark, resolves this by never referring to Levi, speaking instead of the disciple and former tax collector as Matthew. As Matthew's Gospel is derivative, the author must have found a clue in Mark that he believed pointed to Levi and Matthew as the same person, yet no such clue seems to exist. It would even seem more likely that Levi, son of Alphaeus, and James, son of Alphaeus, could be the same person. At the very least they appear to have the same father. Luke's Gospel, in copying from Mark, retains Levi as the tax collector in the parallel passage.Matthew's Gospel does not equate Matthew with Levi, but simply replaces Levi by Matthew. Because of this decision by its author, most modern Christians assume that Levi was another name for Matthew.


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