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What is a sub-set 10 equivalent sets?

Updated: 9/17/2019
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Q: What is a sub-set 10 equivalent sets?
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Are 01234 and 12345 equal sets?

Sets A and B are equivalent if A is a subset of B and if B is a subset of A. A is a subset of B if every element of A is in B. Since 0 is in 01234 but not in 12345, 01234 isn't a subset of 12345, and therefore the sets are not equivalent.


What is sub sets in mathematics?

a subset is when all elements are equivalent to eachother


What sets of numbers does the square root of 10 belong to?

Irrational Numbers which are a subset of Real Numbers which are a subset of Complex Numbers ...


What is a universal subset?

The universal subset is the empty set. It is a subset of all sets.


Which set is a subset of every set?

The empty set is a subset of all sets. No other sets have this property.


What is the difference between subset and equal sets?

Equal sets are the sets that are exactly the same, element for element. A proper subset has some, but not all, of the same elements. An improper subset is an equal set.


What is the difference between improper subset and equal sets?

There is no difference between improper subset and equal sets. If A is an improper subset of B then A = B. For this reason, the term "improper subset" is rarely used.


What is a complement subset and intersection of sets?

Suppose A is a subset of S. Then the complement of subset A in S consists of all elements of S that are not in A. The intersection of two sets A and B consists of all elements that are in A as well as in B.


Name the sets of numbers to which -28 belong?

-28 belongs to: Integers, which is a subset of rationals, which is a subset of reals, which is a subset of complex numbers.


What are the equivalents sets?

Equivalent sets are sets that have the same cardinality. For finite sets it means that they have the same number of distinct elements.For infinite sets, though, things get a bit complicated. Then it is possible for a set to be equivalent to a proper subset of itself: for example, the set of all integers is equivalent to the set of all even integers. What is required is a one-to-one mapping, f(x) = 2x, from the first set to the second.


If a set A is equivalent to a subset of B and B is equivalent to a subset of A then show that A is equivalent to B?

This problem can be modeled and tested quite easily. Set A can be [X,Y], subset B [X,Y], and subset A [X,Y]. Therefore A and B are equivalent.


An example of why any subset can not be a proper subset?

Assume that set A is a subset of set B. If sets A and B are equal (they contain the same elements), then A is NOT a proper subset of B, otherwise, it is.