What is the mechanical advantage of a machine which only changes the direction of the applied force?

Answer 1

One.

Since the question clearly states that the machine only changes the direction there can be no mechanical advantage gained.

In order for a machine to have a mechanical advantage greater than 1, the machine must be able to change two or more of these factors:

• The amount of force exerted

• The distance over which the force is exerted

• The direction over which the force is exerted

Answer 2

when you change the direction of a force more of the applied force can be used to move the mass at the other end.

on a x,y plot if your pulling a force up a ramp you want all the force to be applied parallel to the ramp so that none of the force is pulling the mass down at the ramp,

similarly you don't want to be pulling the object off the ground and across the ramp or your wasting applied force to lift the mass.

(hope this answers your question. its hard to explain adequately without being able to graph it)

Answer 3

The ideal mechanical advantage is (the output force) divided by (the input force).

You just told us that your machine doesn't change the input force, so that quotient is ' 1 ' .

Answer 4

if only the direction changes,the input force will be the same as the output force.the mechanical advantage will always be 1.

Answer 5

If the machine is loss-less, the mechanical advantage is 1. (i.e. nothing gained)

Since all real machines do have losses you can expect .9 - .97 if it is well built.

Answer 6

It has an advantage of one. :)

Answer 7

Mechanical Advantage=1

Answer 8

It's one (1.0).