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F = mg

The basic formula is F = ma (F - force, m - mass, a - acclereation), but if the object is free falling we already know that his acceleration equals gravity, g.

In terms of the question that was asked, which is always a nice way to respond,

the ratio of force to mass for all freely falling objects is the acceleration of gravity.

That's always the same number, everybody wants to know why, and this question

is a super way to explain it.

The force on the falling object is its weight. F = m a

Divide each side of that equation by 'm', and you have a = F/m

Now look at that fraction. The 'F' on top is the Force of gravity, which we call 'weight'.

The more mass an object has, the heavier it is. That means that 'F' depends on 'm'.

So there's an 'm' involved in the top of the fraction, and also an 'm' on the bottom.

If 'm' changes, then the top and bottom of the fraction change together, and the

value of the whole fraction doesn't change at all. The value of the fraction stays

the same, it's the ratio of weight to mass, and that's always the same number . . .

the acceleration of gravity.

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11y ago
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12y ago

It's the acceleration with which the body is falling. When the free fall is under the

influence of gravity, then the ratio of force to mass is the acceleration of gravity.

On Earth, that's 9.8 meters (32.2 feet) per second2 .

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12y ago

The mutual forces of gravity between two masses are always equal. The ratio is ' 1 '.

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8y ago

In itself, none whatsoever. You can have a force of any magnitude acting on a mass of any magnitude. What you will have are relationships with the effect (acceleration), if any.

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16y ago

Acceleration

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9y ago

Mechanical Advantage

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11y ago

eficiency

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Q: What is the ratio of the output force to the input force?
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What is the mechanical advantage of a machine that requires 30 N of input force to produce 15 N of the output force?

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