What prophet said Behold a virgin shall conceive and bear a son?

Answer 1

Isaiah prophesied that a savior would be born to a Virgin. Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Answer 2

A:No Old Testament prophet really foretold the birth of Jesus, but Christians do interpret at least two passages as doing so:

A New Testament favourite is the Old Testament Book of Isaiah. Matthew's Gospel refers to Isaiah 7:14 as evidence that the virginity of Mary had been prophesied. However, this is not a direct reference to the original, Hebrew Book of Isaiah but to the book that forms part of the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures. Isaiah 7:14 supposedly said that a virgin would bear a child but the original Hebrew book actually says, "the young woman," and the young woman in question did have a child a few verses later in Isaiah. The author of Matthew relied on this mistranslation in the Septuagint to portray this passage as the prophet Isaiah prophesying the birth of Jesus.

Micah 5:2 says (KJV): "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting." This has been read as a prophecy by the Old Testament prophet Micah that Jesus would be born in Bethlehem.

The King James translastion could indeed be read as a possible foretelling of the birth of Jesus, based on the use of the words "from everlasting." But, when we look at the oringinal, we find a much more ordinary statement, relevant to the political times that Micah was writin about: (Jewish Tanach), "And you, Bethlehem Ephrathah-you should have been the lowest of the clans of Judah-from you [he] shall emerge for Me, to be a ruler over Israel; and his origin is from of old, from days of yore." Here we find "from days of yore", which the King James translators mistranslated as "from everlasting."

The Hebrew Book of Micah, as translated by Jewish translators, ought to be right but we can check another translation. The NIV Bible does indeed agree with the Jewish Tanach. Without the King James Version error, it is hard to get a prophecy of Jesus out of the Book of Micah.

Answer 3

The prophet Isiah, whom prophesied this 700 years prior to the actual birth of Jesus.

Answer:

It is view held by most Christians, that the prophet Isaiah predicted the miraculous virgin birth of Jesus Christ. This came about because the author of Matthew's Gospel wrote an account in which he referred to Isaiah 7:14 as a prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin. Matthew relies on the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures, and although not actually mentioning Jesus or Mary, the Septuagint does say: "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."

However, what the prophet Isaiah actually wrote in the original Hebrew was, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." The 'prophecy' was for a young woman about whom Isaiah was speaking and about a child to be called Immanuel. The young woman in question did have a child just a few verses later in Isaiah's book. So, neither Isaiah nor any other person ever foretold the virgin birth of Jesus, and Isaiah certainly never mentioned either Mary or Jesus.

Answer 4

A:

Unfortunately, no scripture in the Old Testament mentions a virgin birth, of Jesus or anyone else. However, most Christians believe that the prophet Isaiah prophesied the virgin birth of Jesus Christ. This came about becaue the author of Matthew's Gospel wrote an account in which he referred to Isaiah 7:14 as a prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin. Matthew relies on the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures, and although not actually mentioning Jesus or Mary, the Septuagint does say: "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."

However, what the prophet Isaiah actually wrote in the original Hebrew was, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." The 'prophecy' was for a young woman about whom Isaiah was speaking and about a child to be called Immanuel. The young woman in question did have a child just a few verses later in Isaiah's book. Isaiah never wrote of a virgin birth and never mentioned either Mary or Jesus.

Answer 5

A:There is no prophecy anywhere in The Bible that Jesus would be born to a virgin. However, Matthew's Gospel says that Isaiah 7:14 was a prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin, and we should consider that. Matthew relies on the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures. Although not actually mentioning Jesus, the Septuagint does say: "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virginshall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."

However, what the prophet Isaiah actually wrote in the original Hebrew was, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." The 'prophecy' was for a young woman about whom Isaiah was speaking and about a child to be called Immanuel. The young woman in question did have a child just a few verses later in Isaiah's book, and Isaiah never wrote of a virgin or of the virgin Mary.

Answer 6

Isaiah 7:14, " Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel". See Matthew 1:23.

This was a double sign, one for the House of David/ Ahaz and one reaching forward to the Virgin birth of Jesus.

Answer 7

A:

It is view held by most Christians, that the prophet Isaiah predicted the miraculous virgin birth of Jesus Christ. This came about becaue the author of Matthew's Gospel wrote an account in which he referred to Isaiah 7:14 as a prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin. Matthew relies on the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures, and although not actually mentioning Jesus or Mary, the Septuagint does say: "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."

However, what the prophet Isaiah actually wrote in the original Hebrew was, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." The 'prophecy' was for a young woman about whom Isaiah was speaking and about a child to be called Immanuel. The young woman in question did have a child just a few verses later in Isaiah's book. Isaiah never wrote of a virgin birth, and certainly never mentioned either Mary or Jesus.

Answer 8

There is no book of the Old Testament that stated that the Messiah was to be born of a virgin. There is a prophecy in the Book of Isaiah (specifically 7:14), that says that a young woman will bear a son and this will be proof of God's promise to prevent an Assyrian conquest. The word for young woman "almah", was mistranslated into the Greek Septuagint as "parthenos" which was usually used for the virgins consecrated in a Temple. As a result, Early Christians read "almah" as referring to a virgin woman as opposed to merely a young woman. This started the connection between being born to a virgin and causing salvation of the people, which was eventually hybridized to the point where Isaiah 7:14 is read by most Christians to refer to both the prophecy in Isaiah's time and Jesus' birth, even though there is nothing in the book of Isaiah to indicate that this is a double prophecy.

Answer 9

The answer you are looking for is ISAIAH, which is correct only according to Christian lore and not actually consistent with the Bible.

In truth, it is stated by no person prior to the New Testament that the Messiah was to be born of a virgin. There is a prophecy by Isaiah in the Book of Isaiah (specifically 7:14), that says that a young woman will bear a son and this will be proof of God's promise to prevent an Assyrian conquest. The word for young woman "almah", was mistranslated into the Greek Septuagint as "parthenos" which was usually used for the virgins consecrated in a Temple. As a result, Early Christians read "almah" as referring to a virgin woman as opposed to merely a young woman. This started the connection between being born to a virgin and causing salvation of the people, which was eventually hybridized to the point where Isaiah 7:14 is read by most Christians to refer to both the prophecy in Isaiah's time and Jesus' birth, even though there is nothing in the book of Isaiah to indicate that this is a double prophecy.

Answer 10

It was the prophet Isaiah .Who 700 years before the birth of Christ said this.