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Because there a lot of rivers in France.

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Q: When France industrialized why did its factories rely more on water power then steam power?
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What was Europe like in the 1900's?

In the 1900's there were many factories and Britain had many of these. There were lots of steam engines. Also, there was a larger opportunity for people to be employed because of jobs going on in factories. Britain had less rural area because it was covered by factories.


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What are three reasons why England was the first to industrialize?

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