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The US had nothing to do with appeasement. After the horrors of World War I, the US entered a period of isolationist policy, where it mostly chose to stay out of foreign problems. Additionally, the Great Depression started in 1929 and was still on-going when appeasement started in the mid-1930s.

So the US had its own problems to deal with, and had no interest in getting involved in European quarrels.

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Q: Why did the US let the appeasement policy be justified?
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