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Theory 1: Yes he wrote all of them.

Theory 2: He wrote at least part of all of them, but some of them were co-written with other playwrights. This is the frontrunner at the current time.

Theory 3: Sir Francis Bacon wrote them, and for some mysterious reason had them credited to Shakespeare, and wrote everything else he wrote in extremely tedious Latin to cover it up.

Theory 4: Christopher Marlowe wrote them, after faking his death and living incognito. He got Shakespeare to take the credit so he wouldn't blow his cover.

Theory 5: Edward de Vere wrote them, but likewise credited them to Shakespeare for some strange reason. Some people think that aristocrats were only allowed to write plays if they were so bad that nobody would perform them.

Theory 6: Doctor Who wrote them. At least as plausible as theories 3, 4, and 5.

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What two theories are there as to whether or not Shakespeare wrote all of the works for which he given credit for?

1. He wrote all of the works for which he is given credit by himself. 2. He wrote some of them with the assistance of other playwrights and the rest by himself. Academic opinion inclines toward the second theory. No person who has seriously studied the subject believes that Shakespeare was not the primary writer of all of the works credited to him.


What is one consequence of the fact that you don't know much about Shakespeare's life?

There is some controversy about whether the works attributed to him were really written by him.


Was William Shakespeare a Jew?

While there is some debate as to whether he was an Anglican (which is what he was openly) or a crypto-Catholic, it is very clear that William Shakespeare was not in any way Jewish.


Does Shakespeare exist?

No, he doesn't exist, the works of Shakespeare do exist but the man itself does not. How come?? because he died 400 years ago. And yes, there really was such a person: there is a pile of documentary evidence proving that he lived and was an actor and was credited during his lifetime with writing a number of the works attributed to him. No sane person can doubt that. Some theorize that Shakespeare might have been a woman under a pseudonym in order to avoid receiving criticism for being a woman writer, or some other person who, for reasons unknown, did not want to be acknowledged as the writer. But these theories suffer from a serious problem: a lot of the literature of the day was published anonymously.


Because very little is known about Shakespeare's life there is some debate about whether he?

wrote all the plays attributed to him.

Related Questions

What two theories are there as to whether or not Shakespeare wrote all of the works for which he given credit for?

1. He wrote all of the works for which he is given credit by himself. 2. He wrote some of them with the assistance of other playwrights and the rest by himself. Academic opinion inclines toward the second theory. No person who has seriously studied the subject believes that Shakespeare was not the primary writer of all of the works credited to him.


What is one consequence of the fact that you don't know much about Shakespeare's life?

There is some controversy about whether the works attributed to him were really written by him.


What are two theories as to why or not shakespeare wrote all the works he was given credit?

There are a number of possible theories as to which plays Shakespeare wrote, and also which ones he wrote without a collaborator. Some say he wrote Edward III, some say not, although he was not given credit for it. On the other hand, he was given credit for writing Pericles, Henry VIII and Macbeth, and there are a lot of people who are pretty sure that some other writer had a hand in those plays. There are several theories as to which one it might have been. The Two Noble Kinsmen was credited to John Fletcher and Shakespeare as collaborators, but for the longest time many people believed that Shakespeare had not collaborated on that play. There is a theory that Shakespeare was a collaborator on George Peele's Edward I, but didn't get credit for it. As you see, there are numerous possible theories involving Shakespeare writing things he was not credited with or not writing parts of the plays he is credited with. Theories that he didn't write anything at all have been advanced, but the evidence is so strongly against them that they are not worth considering.


Who written Macbeth?

It has been widely know that William Shakespeare was the author of Macbeth. In recent times there has been some discussion as to whether Shakespeare is actually the author of all the works that have been credited to him in the past.At this time we still believe William Shakespeare was the author.


What are some modern works based on Shakespeare's works?

She's the Man=Twelfth Night


Is Shakespeare patent?

Shakespeare's works may have been protected by some primitive form of copyright back in the day, but it is all public domain now. None of Shakespeare's works are patentable subject matter and all of his works predate the creation of the USPTO. No, none of "shakespeare patent".


Who supposedly wrote Shakespeare's plays?

It was William Shakespeare. Some people argue that some of his works should be attributed to other writers, but there is little to justify this.


What were the principal works of William Shakespeare?

Some people would say that all of Shakespeare's works are "principal works". Some of his plays and poems are extremely well-known, and some less and less well-known until you get to the poems and plays practically nobody has heard of. It is easier just to look at all of his works.


What are some Controversies of Shakespeare's life?

As a result of William Shakespeare never reaching university levels in education, it has been debated by scholars whether or not he was the true author of his works. His disappearance for a seven years gap, following the birth of his children and which ended upon his arrival in London as a playwright are also controversial.


Was William Shakespeare a Jew?

While there is some debate as to whether he was an Anglican (which is what he was openly) or a crypto-Catholic, it is very clear that William Shakespeare was not in any way Jewish.


Does Shakespeare exist?

No, he doesn't exist, the works of Shakespeare do exist but the man itself does not. How come?? because he died 400 years ago. And yes, there really was such a person: there is a pile of documentary evidence proving that he lived and was an actor and was credited during his lifetime with writing a number of the works attributed to him. No sane person can doubt that. Some theorize that Shakespeare might have been a woman under a pseudonym in order to avoid receiving criticism for being a woman writer, or some other person who, for reasons unknown, did not want to be acknowledged as the writer. But these theories suffer from a serious problem: a lot of the literature of the day was published anonymously.


What is Shakespeare based on?

I think you are labouring under the misapprehension that William Shakespeare wrote one thing. He didn't. He wrote many things, some of which are not based on anything, and others are based on classical stories, history, myth, other plays, and even current events. Although people sometimes use the word "Shakespeare" to describe all or some of Shakespeare's works, its use in this context is incorrect. Shakespeare is the man's name; if you want to talk about his works, use their names.