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Maybe. The word Muslim is believed to be in Luke 6:40. Translated from the aramaic of luke into Hebrew as she'MUSHLAM. The ancient greek katartizw (καταρτίζω) root for kathrtismenoV (κατηρτισμένος) is translated into to Arabic as "baseera". Where as if we were to translate it to the aramaic as it is in the English as perfect, then it would be as OaMSHaMLaYaA and then into Hebrew as she'MUSHLAM, and then into Arabic, the term used in luke 6:40 would be Muslim rather than baseera. The only thing differentiating whether which translation is true, is whether the perfection is spiritual or worldly. Baseera would be the reference to worldly perfection, or Muslim as in spiritual perfection. Of course the translation here in the aramaic of luke 6:40 is given as D'aG,MiYR and this connotes to being fulfilled, mature, perfect, accomplish according to the roots and is mostly a verb. OaMSHaMLaYaA is a Participle Adjective or adjective. But if we look at the kathrtismenoV (κατηρτισμένος) we note that it's mood is a participle.


http://www.greekbible.com/l.php?katarti/zw_v--xppnsm-_p

http://www.peshitta.org/cgi-bin/lexicon.cgi - search for perfect in English and rymgd in aramaic

http://www.peshitta.org/pdf/Luqach6.pdf

Even so if search the peshitta lexicon for the 'aramaic word' Ml4m you will find all the terms and meaning that translate and use the same root and prefix to the Arabic "Muslim".

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8y ago

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