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Can indifference curves slope upward

Updated: 4/28/2022
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10y ago

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Yes, but this is not the usual case.

Usually, because both goods are desirable, so you would be equally happy (for example) with 5 puppies and 2 cats as you would be 2 puppies and 5 cats. If you connect these points, you will create a negatively sloped line.

There are instances where the slope is positive because one of the options involved is undesirable. For example, if I have puppies and garbage. Now, I want more puppies, but less garbage. So, I may be equally happy with 2 puppies and 2 piles of garbage as I would be with 5 puppies and 5 piles of garbage. This is because the benefit of having more puppies is offset by the negative of having more garbage. This creates a positively sloped line.

There are also instances where there is 0 slope or infinite slope if the quantity of a good is irrelevant to your enjoyment of it, like air. You would be happier with more puppies, but you would not be happier with more air. You would also not be less happy with more air. The amount of air is irrelevant to your happiness. This would be a zero slope line.

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Q: Can indifference curves slope upward
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Continue Learning about Economics

What are characteristics of an indifference curve?

indifferent curves are convex to their origin, they do not intersect, and have a negative slope


What are indifference curves explain it using a graph?

o Indifference curves are curves that have a negative slope and are bowed inward. Each point on the line has the same exact util value. In other words, a person would be the same amount of "happy" at each point on the indifference curve. There are an infinite amount of indifference curves on every graph. G2


Because of the law of supply supply curves always slope?

upward and to the right


Why indifference curves are always negatively sloped?

its something to do with a non satiation assumption. ie if all the bundles on the indifference curve are "goods" (actively wanted products) then the indifference curve slopes downward from L to R. if there is a "good" and a "bad" on the curve then it will be positively sloped. (upward from L to R)


Why is the Graph of the Indifference Curve Convex to the Origin and not Concave?

an indifference curves are convex not concave bcz: when we are using the two coomodities, both are sbtitute to each other, consumer will either use one or the other, he has to select one according to his taste, so MRS is diminishing, 2. the indifference curves are convex to the ogigan, this implies that the slope of IC is decreased as we move from let to right in the graph. this axom is derved from the point that MRS s decreasing. an indifference curves are convex not concave bcz: when we are using the two coomodities, both are sbtitute to each other, consumer will either use one or the other, he has to select one according to his taste, so MRS is diminishing, 2. the indifference curves are convex to the ogigan, this implies that the slope of IC is decreased as we move from let to right in the graph. this axom is derved from the point that MRS s decreasing.

Related questions

Slope of indifference curve?

indifference curves slopes downward to the right


What are characteristics of an indifference curve?

indifferent curves are convex to their origin, they do not intersect, and have a negative slope


What are indifference curves explain it using a graph?

o Indifference curves are curves that have a negative slope and are bowed inward. Each point on the line has the same exact util value. In other words, a person would be the same amount of "happy" at each point on the indifference curve. There are an infinite amount of indifference curves on every graph. G2


Because of the law of supply supply curves always slope?

upward and to the right


Why indifference curves are always negatively sloped?

its something to do with a non satiation assumption. ie if all the bundles on the indifference curve are "goods" (actively wanted products) then the indifference curve slopes downward from L to R. if there is a "good" and a "bad" on the curve then it will be positively sloped. (upward from L to R)


Why is the Graph of the Indifference Curve Convex to the Origin and not Concave?

an indifference curves are convex not concave bcz: when we are using the two coomodities, both are sbtitute to each other, consumer will either use one or the other, he has to select one according to his taste, so MRS is diminishing, 2. the indifference curves are convex to the ogigan, this implies that the slope of IC is decreased as we move from let to right in the graph. this axom is derved from the point that MRS s decreasing. an indifference curves are convex not concave bcz: when we are using the two coomodities, both are sbtitute to each other, consumer will either use one or the other, he has to select one according to his taste, so MRS is diminishing, 2. the indifference curves are convex to the ogigan, this implies that the slope of IC is decreased as we move from let to right in the graph. this axom is derved from the point that MRS s decreasing.


Is it possible to have thick indifference curves?

Indifference curves are not supposed to have any thickness to them at all. It would not be rational if an indifference curve had thickness to it. It is supposed to look like a really thin pancake with only one side.


Why indifference curves usually not be upward sloping?

Indifference curves are typically not upward sloping because they represent tradeoff's between economic "goods," things we like to have. For example, you might be willing to trade two scoops of vanilla ice cream for one slice of apple pie. You would be happier if you had both, but that would put you on a higher indifference curve. You are indifferent between two scoops of vanilla ice cream and once slice of apple pie-you value them equally. This can change as we move along indifference curves, because the "marginal utility" you get from consuming a given good begins to diminish after awhile (if you've already had eight scoops of ice cream, another probably doesn't look so good right now). If you only had one slice of apple pie, you would not trade it for one scoop of ice cream, but perhaps if you had three pieces of pie you would. If you had sixty pieces of pie, you almost certainly would.Sometimes we do see indifference curves slope upward. We could frame that as work hours and income perhaps (the model really only works for people who can choose the number of hours they spend working). Say I dislike my job, but I like money. And that I make $10 an hour. I might be willing to work six hours in exchange for $60, but to get me to work 8 hours, you'll have to pay me $80. This indifference curve slopes upward, because the exchange is between an economic good, and an economic "bad."


What is the different between indifference map and indiffirence curve?

Indifference curve is a curve that shows consumption bundles that give the consumer the same level of satisfaction. Indifference map, on the other hand Indifference curve is a graph of two or more indifference curves.


What type of fold is created when the crust bends and curves upward?

An Anticline is formed when the crust bends and curves upward.


Slope of a line that slants upward?

If the line slants upward (going towards the right), then the slope is positive.


What does the slope of the indifference curve reveal?

marginal rate of substitution