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You can't. It would be 50% percent of whatever the normal cost or half. So even if it was 0.02 it would still be 0.01. Now, if it was 0.01 then whatever the cost would be up to the shopkeeper. This reminds me of Zeno's paradox. You should check it out.
As much as its Creator asks.
It costs the shopkeeper $x to buy 20 mangoes They sell 18 mangoes for $x. The unit cost of a mangoe to buy was $x/20 The unit cost to buy the 18 mangoes is therefore 18 x $x/20 or $18x/20. this can be reduced to $9x/10 The shopkeeper sold the 18 mangoes for $x. The gross profit made is $x - $9x/10 = $x/10, this is 1/9 of the cost price. So the selling price is 10/9 of the cost price. the profit is 1/9 or as a percentage 11.11%
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The shopkeeper sold the cupboard for Rs 6175. 5% of 6500 = .05 x 6500 = 325 6500 - 325 = 6175 Since he earned a profit of 15% of the cost, the cost price, C, would be Rs 5369.57. C + 15% of C = 6175 C + .15C = 6175 1.15C = 6175 (divide by 1.15 to both sides) C ≈ 5369.57
Rs. 500 /-
Theoretically nothing. The taxpayer would be paying the MP whether he or she asks a question or not.
Finance/Administration Section chief
It's gonna cost ya
It's gonna cost ya
The one cost that would be classified as part of both prime cost and conversion cost would be:
The one cost that would be classified as part of both prime cost and conversion cost