You don't specify what type of zones you're talking about, but from the context "time zones" seems likely.
In that case, the answer is no. Zone boundaries are ROUGHLY based on longitude, but political factors enter the equation as well (it should be obvious that having parts of the same city in different time zones would be awkward).
Time zones are based off of longitude
The Prime Meridian (0 degrees longitude) and the International Date Line (180 degrees longitude) determine time zones across the globe. Time zones are typically one hour apart for every 15 degrees of longitude difference.
Time zones are primarily based on longitude rather than latitude. The Earth is divided into 24 longitudinal sections, each representing one hour of time difference. This allows for a standardized way to coordinate time across the globe.
The polar and temperate zones and the tropics.
It's the lines of longitude which are used to define time zones, not lattitude.
The prime meridian is a line of longitude
yes
Time Zones are based on lines of Longitude - with detours to avoid land.
earth's rotation
Time zones are divided based on lines of longitude, with each time zone roughly covering 15 degrees of longitude. There are a total of 24 time zones around the world, each one hour apart from the next, although some countries may use half or quarter-hour offsets from standard time zones. The Prime Meridian (0 degrees longitude) in Greenwich, England is the starting point for the time zone calculations.
No, time zones are based on 15 degrees longitude, because there are 360 degrees of longitude on the globe and 24 hours a day, so 360/24 makes 15. But, there are 24 time zones for 25 times (-12, -11, ... -1, 0, +1, ... +11, +12) and half-hour and quarter-hour variations so it really isn't based on anything.
Prime meridian, International Date Line, time zones