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Part of it depends on what their contract says. It may allow them to do so. There are typically numerous reasons a company makes changes like this: # The buyer has not paid on time and therefore is considered a credit risk. # The buyer making the purchase is having trouble and is considered a credit risk. # The buyer may not have established credit and they start out this way with new customers. # The Seller may be having financial difficulties and is hoping to improve their cash flow.

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Q: Can a company change its billing policy from pay in arrears to pay in advance without warning?
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