Of course not. When a property owner gives a mortgage to the bank they must sign over an interest in their property so that if they default on the mortgage the bank can take possession of the property by forelosure. You cannot pledge property as security for loan if you don't own the property. Granting a mortgage to a lender requires the consent and signature of the owner.
Of course not. When a property owner gives a mortgage to the bank they must sign over an interest in their property so that if they default on the mortgage the bank can take possession of the property by forelosure. You cannot pledge property as security for loan if you don't own the property. Granting a mortgage to a lender requires the consent and signature of the owner.
Of course not. When a property owner gives a mortgage to the bank they must sign over an interest in their property so that if they default on the mortgage the bank can take possession of the property by forelosure. You cannot pledge property as security for loan if you don't own the property. Granting a mortgage to a lender requires the consent and signature of the owner.
Of course not. When a property owner gives a mortgage to the bank they must sign over an interest in their property so that if they default on the mortgage the bank can take possession of the property by forelosure. You cannot pledge property as security for loan if you don't own the property. Granting a mortgage to a lender requires the consent and signature of the owner.
Of course not. When a property owner gives a mortgage to the bank they must sign over an interest in their property so that if they default on the mortgage the bank can take possession of the property by forelosure. You cannot pledge property as security for loan if you don't own the property. Granting a mortgage to a lender requires the consent and signature of the owner.
The bank will require the other owner's signature on the loan.
Generally, no. Reverse mortgages do no require mortgage payments so foreclosures are rare. When the borrower dies the heirs have a generous time period to sell the property. If they don't sell it, or if the property is worth less than the mortgage, the lender can foreclose and only the mortgaged property is vulnerable to the foreclosure, not any other property in the estate.Generally, no. Reverse mortgages do no require mortgage payments so foreclosures are rare. When the borrower dies the heirs have a generous time period to sell the property. If they don't sell it, or if the property is worth less than the mortgage, the lender can foreclose and only the mortgaged property is vulnerable to the foreclosure, not any other property in the estate.Generally, no. Reverse mortgages do no require mortgage payments so foreclosures are rare. When the borrower dies the heirs have a generous time period to sell the property. If they don't sell it, or if the property is worth less than the mortgage, the lender can foreclose and only the mortgaged property is vulnerable to the foreclosure, not any other property in the estate.Generally, no. Reverse mortgages do no require mortgage payments so foreclosures are rare. When the borrower dies the heirs have a generous time period to sell the property. If they don't sell it, or if the property is worth less than the mortgage, the lender can foreclose and only the mortgaged property is vulnerable to the foreclosure, not any other property in the estate.
You may be able to get a reverse mortgage with the written consent of the fee owners. However, the lender may require the property be transferred to your name alone.
Your idea won't work if your children ever grant a mortgage on the property. If you convey your property to your children and they grant a mortgage at some future time, the lender would insist on a clear title in case of a default and foreclosure. If you had arranged to have a recorded lien on the property the lender would require that it be released before they would approve a mortgage. The only way for you to insure the property won't be taken by foreclosure is to not allow your children to mortgage it. That could be accomplished by your reserving a life estate. They couldn't mortgage the property without your signature.
No. A prudent lender will require that all owners sign the mortgage so that it can take the property by foreclosure if the borrower defaults. If only one signed the mortgage the lender can only take possession of a half interest in the property.No. A prudent lender will require that all owners sign the mortgage so that it can take the property by foreclosure if the borrower defaults. If only one signed the mortgage the lender can only take possession of a half interest in the property.No. A prudent lender will require that all owners sign the mortgage so that it can take the property by foreclosure if the borrower defaults. If only one signed the mortgage the lender can only take possession of a half interest in the property.No. A prudent lender will require that all owners sign the mortgage so that it can take the property by foreclosure if the borrower defaults. If only one signed the mortgage the lender can only take possession of a half interest in the property.
If a wife is an owner of the property then she must sign the mortgage in order for the lender to acquire good title to the property if there is a foreclosure. If the wife isn't an owner the lender may require her to sign in case she has any other rights in the property such as homestead rights.If a wife is an owner of the property then she must sign the mortgage in order for the lender to acquire good title to the property if there is a foreclosure. If the wife isn't an owner the lender may require her to sign in case she has any other rights in the property such as homestead rights.If a wife is an owner of the property then she must sign the mortgage in order for the lender to acquire good title to the property if there is a foreclosure. If the wife isn't an owner the lender may require her to sign in case she has any other rights in the property such as homestead rights.If a wife is an owner of the property then she must sign the mortgage in order for the lender to acquire good title to the property if there is a foreclosure. If the wife isn't an owner the lender may require her to sign in case she has any other rights in the property such as homestead rights.
If you are not on the deed then you don't own the property. If you don't own the property then you should not promise to pay the mortgage. A co-signer on a mortgage and promissory note is completely responsible for paying the mortgage. If the primary mortgagor (who in this case is the owner of the property) defaults on the mortgage the lender will go after the co-signer of the note for payment. A default will ruin your credit. If someone has asked you to sign their note and mortgage then you should require they execute a new deed with you as the co-owner of the property.
You don't HAVE to cover your property with homeowners insurance once your home has not mortgage but you could lose everything if you had a fire or if someone was injured on your property. Some HOA's require some type of insurance on every property regardless of mortgage. Its not a wise decision to drop coverage.
NC requires a notarized title, a NC driver's license, and a passed NC inspection before the vehicle can be registered.
Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.
AnswerYes. A POA that gives someone the authority to sell or mortgage your property must be recorded where the land is recorded so others can confirm that any document signed by the agent is/was valid. Many jurisdictions require an affidavit by the attorney in fact as to the status of the POA.
A spouse is not added to a mortgage; if the spouse already owns an interest in the property through deed or community property, then the spouse is subject to the mortgage, regardless of whether or not he or she signed it. Note, however, that many mortgages contain "due on sale" clauses which require the mortgage to be refinanced if there is a change in ownership of the property. Contact your bank to see if your loan contains such a clause.