If the force is non-constant, and reverses itself over time, it can give a zero impulse. For example, the spring force would give a zero impulse over one period of oscillation.
Strictly speaking, you would say that a force acts on a system and the impulse of that force corresponds to the change in momentum of the system due to the action of the force. More mathematically, the impulse of a force is defined as the integral of that force with respect to time over the time period that the force acts.
The impulse or the momentum
The product of (force x time) is the quantity called 'impulse'. It has the same units as momentum and, indeed, an impulse imparted to an object increases its momentum by that amount. In the metric system, it's easy. A newton-second is a kilogram-meter per second. But in this case, all you have for impulse is something called a "poundal-second", which I have no idea what other unit that may be equivalent to. I don't even know what the unit of momentum is in the 'customary' system. Foot-pound per second ? Slug-mile per hour ? Who knows ?
Impulse
A force is required to change momentum.An "impulse" refers to the amount of momentum transferred; impulse can be defined as force x time (more precisely: the corresponding integral).
Impulse is based on two factors: force and time. I = F / t. If there is zero force, the impulse will be zero. If time is zero, the calculation would be undefined.
Yes. A non-zero force may not be sufficient to alter the velocity - for example if it is smaller that the limiting friction. No change in velocity implies no change in momentum and so impulse = 0.
Impulse refers to both force and time....... Impulse=(the change in Force)*(time) OR Impulse=the change in Momentum
ZIF (Zero Insertion Force)
impulse is also called as sudden force or energy and called sudden shock impulse = force * displacement
Impulse is the change in momentum. Therefore Impulse is only equal to momentum if the initial momentum was equal to zero. Its the same phenomenon as position and displacement. Impulse= final momentum-initial momentum= mv - mv_0= Force * Time Where m is the mass and v is the velocity.
yes moving objects have impulse
The value of the impulse equals the the force times the time.
I believe the answer is no. The impulse produced is also time related. Impulse force is measured as dp/dt. Therefore a smaller force produced for a very quick time could produce a larger impulse than a large force over a longer time.
Impulse=Force*time=change of momentum
Force of Impulse - 1961 is rated/received certificates of: Finland:K-16
Impulse = force x time. An impulse can also be understood as a change of momentum.