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Yes, depending on the following:

(1) The assumption terms of the loan (usually an assumption loan has a higher interest rate, fees for assumption, etc.)

(2) The contract between the original debtor and the party assuming the loan (the original debtor may charge the assuming party for the right to assume the loan)

Generally, the entity that makes the MOST profit out of an assumption loan is the lender who services that loan at the time of transfer.

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14y ago

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Yes. The debtor can take either action voluntarily, but that will not relieve the debtor of the original contract agreements. In the case of a vehicle the borrower/debtor would still be responsible for any deficiency between the price the vehicle was sold for and the loan amount. A voluntary foreclosed or the submission of the deed in lieu of foreclosure is a complicated matter and the extent of the debtor's financial responsibility would be stated in the terms of the loan agreement.


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How do I get payment on a defaulted personal loan?

foreclose the debtor assets...


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