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No. "by agreement of the property owner" are the key words here. Even though there was no written lease, you had the oral permission of the property owner to use the property. Therefore, you use of the property was not hostile, and fails the third prong of the adverse possession test. (MUENCH v. OXLEY, 90 Wn.2d 637 (provides that a person claiming adverse possession must use the property without the owner's permission)).

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Q: Can you claim a claim of right to a property if you were living on the property without a lease by agreement of the homeowner?
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