0
Delay receipt of cash. Expedite payment of cash expenses.
Wiki User
∙ 15y ago
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
What is a federal form 1040 used for?
The federal IRS tax form 1040 is used by individuals to report and file their income taxes on an annual basis. This form is used in place of the 1040A and 1040EZ for different reasons, such as taxable income higher than $100,000, itemized deductions, or self-employment income.
Why does the Queen not pay tax?
Because she receives her money (appanage) from the same pot. That is, the layman's hard earned money. -------- Yes, in 1992 The Queen offered to pay income tax and capital gains tax on a voluntary basis. Since 1993, her personal income has been taxable as for any other UK taxpayer.
Can you deduct losses on your 401k on yearly tax return?
No these amounts are only paper losses and you never have reported the deferred compensation amounts on your 1040 Federal income tax return as taxable income and never paid any income taxes on the amount so you do not have any cost basis in the 401K plan YET and these transactions losses or gains are only taking place inside of the 401K plan each year. This is the same thing that happens in the year that you have gains inside of your 401K plan you do NOT report the amount of gains as taxable income on your income tax return either because the transaction are taking place INSIDE of the 401K plan.
If I received a car as a tax-free gift is the profit from a future sale taxable as income?
Well, your right in understanding that anything sold at a profit from your tax basis would create gain income, including a car or such. And I'm sure all of us are alert to, and report that faithfully. It's complicated by the fact most people may not track their basis on items of personal property. But, as your question acknowleges the acquisition was done as a qualified gift, (presumably by parents or such), virtually all of those transfers include the recepient getting a "stepped up basis", that is the basis at market value at time of transfer to you. That is presumably lower than the amount your selling it for. Hence, no income.
What phrase best describes the basis of income tax?
Which phrase best describes the basis of seals taxes
Is return of investment an income acct?
Yes the amount would be a taxable income amount after your return of investment amounts exceed your cost basis in the investment.
What is fully taxable equivalent basis?
The taxable equivalent basis (teb) adjustment increases GAAP revenues and the provision for income taxes by an amount that would increase revenues on certain tax-exempt securities to a level that would incur tax at the statutory rate, to facilitate comparisons.
Is a 1099-S counted as taxable income from the sale of settlement of estate?
Taxable income/loss is the difference between the basis of the property and the sales price. If they are identical, there is no income/loss. A sale in the settlement of an estate would generally appear on IRS Form 1041. Its taxability would generally be based on the cost basis, cost of sale including preparation for sale & the sales price. If the sale is more than six months post-mortem an appraisal as to value at date of death and/or six months post date of death would be needed to establish cost basis.
What is a federal form 1040 used for?
The federal IRS tax form 1040 is used by individuals to report and file their income taxes on an annual basis. This form is used in place of the 1040A and 1040EZ for different reasons, such as taxable income higher than $100,000, itemized deductions, or self-employment income.
What are the tax consequences of owning a master limited partnership?
Assuming you mean owning a share in a master limited partnership (MLP)as an investor, he short answer is: you get tax-deferred income on a quarterly basis, and pay income tax on your share of partnership income, which is usually far smaller than the distribution. The long anwer: the important thing about an MLP, or any partnership, is pass-through taxation. That is, an MLP does not pay an entity level tax the way a corporation does. Rather, the partners--that is you and the other unitholders--are allocated their proportionate shares of all tax items, net them out, and pay the tax on the resulting taxable income. So, you will be allocated a share of the partnership's income, its depreciation deductions, etc. All this is on paper--you don't actually receive an amount equal to your share of income. You do, however, receive a quarterly distribution, which is like a dividend, except that it is treated differently for tax purposes. Because the partnership doesn't pay a tax, it can pay out more of its income to you in case than a corporation typically can. Instead of being taxed currently, the distribution is subtracted from your basis in your partnership units. When you sell your units, your taxable gain is the difference between your sales price and your adjusted basis, so the tax on the distributions is collected then. While the distributions lower your basis, your share of taxable income and other things increase it, and so it takes longer than you might think to get your basis to zero. If you ever do get to zero, the distributions would become taxable. For more information, visit the website of the MLPs' trade association, the National Association of Publicly Traded Partnerships (http://www.naptp.org)...the answer is being submitted by its executive director.
Why does the Queen not pay tax?
Because she receives her money (appanage) from the same pot. That is, the layman's hard earned money. -------- Yes, in 1992 The Queen offered to pay income tax and capital gains tax on a voluntary basis. Since 1993, her personal income has been taxable as for any other UK taxpayer.
If you are collecting a accidental disability retirement because of a work related injury as a police officer is this taxable income?
The question does not revolve around the employment as much as:If the payment is under a policy that you contributed premium to (on an after tax basis)...and how much. If you paid for the policy, generally, at least to the amount you paid as a percentage of premium, the benefits are not taxable.Also, if the payment is for loss of something like an arm, eyesight, etc. - as it is replacing something you "owned", it generally is not taxable. if it is for income that you would have received (and been taxable when it was received), then generally, it is taxable.your plan administrator can tell you about your specific coverage and benefit.
Can you deduct losses on your 401k on yearly tax return?
No these amounts are only paper losses and you never have reported the deferred compensation amounts on your 1040 Federal income tax return as taxable income and never paid any income taxes on the amount so you do not have any cost basis in the 401K plan YET and these transactions losses or gains are only taking place inside of the 401K plan each year. This is the same thing that happens in the year that you have gains inside of your 401K plan you do NOT report the amount of gains as taxable income on your income tax return either because the transaction are taking place INSIDE of the 401K plan.
The traditional income statement organizes costs on the basis of cost behavior?
The traditional income statement organizes costs on the basis of cost behavior
Can REQUIRED MINIMUM DISTRIBUTIONS be given to charities?
Sure. But you would be wiser to give the inverstment from a non-qualified account as a donation. It can be given with the deduction being at it's current or stepped up basis, without you having to actually sell it and realize that income first. Whereas, any RMD from your qualified plan is in taxable income.
Value property from income basis?
Your basis is the amount of your investment in property for tax purposes.
If I received a car as a tax-free gift is the profit from a future sale taxable as income?
Well, your right in understanding that anything sold at a profit from your tax basis would create gain income, including a car or such. And I'm sure all of us are alert to, and report that faithfully. It's complicated by the fact most people may not track their basis on items of personal property. But, as your question acknowleges the acquisition was done as a qualified gift, (presumably by parents or such), virtually all of those transfers include the recepient getting a "stepped up basis", that is the basis at market value at time of transfer to you. That is presumably lower than the amount your selling it for. Hence, no income.
