if there was Mary 2nd...then yes
Mary 1st married Phillip prince of Spain at sometime when she was Queen of England.
It was not a good idea for Mary to marry Phillip because Spain was having a war against France at the time. This bought conflict between England and France.Also Phillip did not become king, thgis upset Mary. After Mary died Phillip proposed to Elizabeth, she refused, so he started plotting against her!
Mary Queen of Scots had just been executed by Queen Elizabeth 1st and when the news got to Phillip, King of Spain, he was very angry so he set up the Spanish Armada to defeat England and make their lives hell!! This was written by a Year 7 student!! (FYI)
Queen Mary I's husband, Philip II of Spain, came from the Habsburg dynasty. He was the son of Holy Roman Emperor Charles V and Isabella of Portugal. Philip was born in Valladolid, Spain, and became king of Spain in his own right in 1556. His marriage to Mary I in 1554 was part of a political alliance to strengthen Catholicism and unite England and Spain.
Mary I married to the future King Philip II of Spain in 1554. She earned her name 'Bloody Mary' because she revived severe heresy laws and hundreds of Protestants were executed during her reign.
Yes. King Phillip II declared the bancrupcy of Spain ... Oh, almost forgot ... WW2 started 75 years ago ...
Spain was a monarchy ruled by Phillip III, Phillip IV, and Charles II during the 17th century.
Catherine of Aragon was the daughter of king Ferdinand and Queen Isabella of Spain, she was the 1st wife of HenryVIII, and the mother of Mary (bloodyMary) DIVAN PARTH
Mary the 1st.
Mary the 1st had no children.
Mary 1st was a catholic.
Mary I of Scotland was a Catholic. Mary I of England was also a Catholic