It could be that he took some writing help, but the thoughts were his.
It was his job, or one of his jobs. Shakespeare was paid to write plays.
Shakespeare wrote all his plays in England. They are not all set in England, though.
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays in London. Where exactly in London is an open question.
As with almost all of Shakespeare's plays, Shakespeare got the story from a story he read somewhere.
yes he did because he did not like any do it for him
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays for the same reason--to make money. It was his job.
Shakespeare wrote all his plays for acting companies to perform. From 1594 until his retirement in 1616 he wrote them for the acting company the Lord Chamberlain's Men, later known as The King's Men, of which he himself was a partner.
He wrote all of his plays for the same reason: it was his job.
How else can you write a play? All creation is creative by definition.
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays in England, since he lived his entire life there. He also set more of his plays in England than anywhere else.
The gist of this conspriracy theory is that William Shakespeare did not pen all his plays himself. If or even how this can be proved is doubtful.