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What else can I help you with?
Why did william shakespeare write all the plays he did?
It was his job, or one of his jobs. Shakespeare was paid to write plays.
What country did William Shakespeare write his plays?
Shakespeare wrote all his plays in England. They are not all set in England, though.
Where did Shakespeare write some of his plays?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays in London. Where exactly in London is an open question.
What inspired Shakespeare to write Othello?
As with almost all of Shakespeare's plays, Shakespeare got the story from a story he read somewhere.
Did shakespeare write all his plays?
yes he did because he did not like any do it for him
Why did William Shakespeare write MacBeth?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays for the same reason--to make money. It was his job.
Who did Shakespeare write his two most famous plays for?
Shakespeare wrote all his plays for acting companies to perform. From 1594 until his retirement in 1616 he wrote them for the acting company the Lord Chamberlain's Men, later known as The King's Men, of which he himself was a partner.
Why did shakespeare write Richard 3rd?
He wrote all of his plays for the same reason: it was his job.
Did William Shakespeare write many plays creatively?
How else can you write a play? All creation is creative by definition.
Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
What country did shakespeare write most of his plays in?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays in England, since he lived his entire life there. He also set more of his plays in England than anywhere else.
Description of a Shakespeare conspiracy theory?
The gist of this conspriracy theory is that William Shakespeare did not pen all his plays himself. If or even how this can be proved is doubtful.
