Most people think not.
That a man called William Shakespeare was born and died in Stratford-upon-Avon, that he was involved in some manner with members of the playing company, The Lord Chamberlain's Men, later the King's Men, is not disputed. In 1623 the first folio of Shakespeare's works was published, with dedicatory letters allegedly written by John Hemminges and William Condell, two associates of the King's Men, identifying "Shakespeare" as the author.
Since this question is about Edward de Vere, however, and not about the conventional author (about whom much can be read elsewhere), let us consider some of the reasons why many persons have concluded that the orthodox account is erroneous and that de Vere was in fact the real author.
Perhaps the foremost reason is that so many of de Vere's known experiences seem uncannily reflected in the plays and poems published under the name "Shakespeare." Space does not permit a complete analysis, but these include such facts as that de Vere was lamed, and the author of the Sonnets speaks of himself as lame; de Vere was raised in the household of William Cecil Lord Burghley, after his father died when he was 12 years of age. Cecil is thought by many scholars to be the historical prototype for the character of Polonius in Hamlet. De Vere was unhappily married to the daughter of his legal guardian Anne Cecil, and advocates of the Oxfordian view, such as Supreme Court Justice John Paul Stevens, argue that this unfortunate liaison is mirrored in Hamlet's conflicted relations with Ophelia.
Is this a question? William Shakespeare did write his plays.
It was his job, or one of his jobs. Shakespeare was paid to write plays.
Yes
William Shakespeare died in 1616.
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Yes.
William Shakespeare wrote 38 plays. They are divided into comedies, histories and tragedies. See the related question for a full list of his plays.
Shakespeare wrote all his plays in England. They are not all set in England, though.
Write poems, stories, and plays.
To make money.
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