If by a "Bible" you are referring to a printed copy of the Scriptures, I don't think the printing press was invented until the mid-sixteen century or thereabouts. Before that time most Bibles were handcopied by monks, and before that, by paid scribes. It could take a very long time to produce one Bible. Most people, at that time, did not know how to read, anyway. There was a Bible in every church which was read at each Mass, and then explained in the sermon or homily. Churches were built to be "homilies in stone". This is the reason that churches were so full and decorated. The windows would depict scenes from The Bible, there would be statues of various saints, murals, and fantastic altar pieces, rood screens, etc. were all decorated in such a fashion as to be lessons to the people and depictions of Bible events and stories. So, the short answer would be no, unless they were very wealthy and had a lot of time on their hands, which, by definition, means that they weren't a peasant!
Peasants did not buy their houses, they built them.
It was the 'peasants'.
There were so many English peasants before 1066. Most of these English peasants had been displaced from their lands by the rich landlords.
Peasant is a French word. It means farmer. After 1066 it came to be the word for people who farmed. Which was most of Feudal England
October 14th 1066
1611 King James Bible published.
1066 A.D. For those who are not religious it would be 1066 C.E. (common era).
It is: 1066 = MLXVI
Newspapers did not exist in 1066.
It is: 1066 = MLXVI
1066 1066 it was the normans time.
no it was not it was in a different year around 1066