Yes
Because they were Normans, from Normandy in France.
At the time of the invasion of England, a dialect of French.
He spoke Norman French as did his courtiers.
The Normans learned to speak French through a process of linguistic assimilation that took place after their conquest of England in 1066. The Norman nobility adopted French as their language of power and administration, while the local population gradually absorbed French vocabulary and grammar through everyday interactions. Over time, this led to the development of Anglo-Norman, a distinct form of French spoken in England during the Middle Ages.
The Normans who settled in France (in the region now called Normandy) mixed up with the local population and learned French. They totally dropped the usage of their original languages in two or three generations.
In a way. The battle of Hastings was fought by the normans, led by the William the conqueror. The Normans are ancestors of the french.
The Normans.
Norman-French
Old French.
The Normans were descendants of Vikings who had settled in France. They were not Vikings themselves; they were French and acted pretty much as the French did. They were not called Vikings at the time.
Chaucer would have been addressed both in Latin and French while at home in England. His churchmen would speak Latin and his lawful superiors, the Normans, would, of course, speak French. What made Chaucer a remarkable author was that he, first, wrote in the language of his fellow commoners, English.
Old French =)