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If "parties" means grantor and grantee, then the answer is no. Only the grantor usually signs a deed, unless there are restrictive covenants to which the grantee will be bound. If "parties" means multiple people who currently own the property, then the answer is yes, all selling parties need to sign, either all present at once, or by power of attorney.
Wiki User
∙ 16y ago
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoGenerally no. A grantee must sign a deed only when the grantee is agreeing to some special condition in the deed. Generally, grantees sign condominium deeds, agreeing to be bound by the provisions in the Master Deed.
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoOf course. Otherwise, they wouldn't have both signed it. However, i guess in extreme cases they would have to do it seperate.
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What point you would attempt to get clients to sign a contract?
The time to sign a contract is when both parties have agreed to the terms of the contract.
In Alabama do both parties have to sign the divorce papers?
No a power of attorney will not be any good in a divorce.
In the state of Texas if there are two names on a car title do both parties have to sign it in order to sell the car?
From what I've read (I have the same situation) if there is an "AND/OR" on the title, only one needs to sign. If there is no "and/or" both need to sign.
Does both parties sign divorce papers after judge signs to make it complete?
Yes, both of them has to agree. If not, the divorce cannot be confirmed.
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i assume you mean "not knowING" anwswer: NO, both parties should sign it at the same time.
Can one person sign a check with 2 names?
Yes - so long as when the account was first set up - it wasn't made a condition that BOTH parties have to sign.
When is a real estate contract a binding contract?
When both parties sign the buy sell agreement and earnest money is in escrow.
How do you fill out bargain and sale deed?
You will need to get one of these from your local government office. Then you can just fill it out and have both parties sign it.
