The question makes no sense. Muslims are people; they cannot be invaded save for by microorganisms.
If you mean to ask: "Do Spaniards invade Muslim lands?" then you have to define what a Muslim land is. Moroccans claim that the Spanish cities of Ceuta and Melilla are part of the territorial integrity of Morocco. Spain responds that it has controlled both of those cities since 1497, before the creation of the Alouite Dynasty in Morocco (in the 1600s) and before even the annexation of Navarre (in 1515). As a result, they are historically Spanish lands, not Moroccan lands. (Whether Moroccan lands are Muslim lands is itself a more involved question of how you "Islamify" a piece of land, but let's avoid that for the moment.)
Historically, Spain had colonies in Morocco (north Morocco, ruled from Tetouan, and south Morocco, ruled from Ifni) and controlled Western Sahara (called Rio de Oro at that time). Both of these areas have majority-Muslim populations. Spain handed over control of north Morocco and most of South Morocco in 1956 to Morocco at France's request. Spain gave up Ifni itself after the Ifni War with Morocco and international pressure in 1969. Spain gave Rio de Oro independence in 1975 after which it was promptly annexed by Morocco in the "Green March".
The Muslims invaded Egypt roughly 670 years after Cleopatra's death.
1548
invadir
The Spanish started the Reconquista to reclaim the land from the Muslims.
Invade England.
because they were board.
The 16th.
spanish amarda
he did 1544
1588
Phillip II
The fifteenth century. Muslims were expelled from Spain in 1492.