For whom was Macbeth written

Answer 1

William Shakespeare did not write 'Macbeth' for King James I and VI. He wrote it for his acting company The King's Men to perform. Although the play does include some flattering things about the king, it does not show up on lists of plays performed before him. Our only record of it being performed is at the Globe in 1612. It was never published in quarto form, which makes it unlikely that it was popular with people generally, or that it had royal favour. It also appears to have been substantially revised and possibly turned into a musical by Thomas Middleton, which is again unlikely if it was popular or a royal favourite.

Answer 2

The play 'Macbeth' was written for King James [June 19, 1566-March 27, 1625] I of England and Ireland and VI of Scotland. King James I was the definite descendant of King Duncan I [d. August 14, 1040]. He also was supposed to have been the descendant of Banquo. But some historians have seen in Banquo and his son Fleance totally fictional characters.

Answer 3

Some scholars think that William Shakespeare [Baptized April 26, 1564-April 23, 1616] wrote his play 'Macbeth' for King James [June 19, 1566-March 27, 1625] I of England and Ireland and VI of Scotland. They suggest that the play was an excuse to praise the King's long line of descent back to his supposed ancestor, Banquo. According to legend, Banquo's son Fleance escaped from Scotland to Wales. In Wales, he married Nesta verch Gruffydd [b. 1059], the daughter of Gruffydd ap Llywelyn [c. 1007-August 5, 1063], the last native Prince of Wales; and of Aldgyth/Edith [d. after 1070], who took as her second husband King Harold II [c. 1022-October 14, 1066] of England. Supposedly, Fleance's and Nesta's son Walter went back to Scotland. He became the Royal Steward to the Kings of Scotland. He married into the royal family, and thereby became the ancestor of the Stuart Kings, of which King James I/VI was Shakespeare's contemporary. But reality differed from the legends that the Stuarts liked to have circulated. Nesta's family background was not only noble but also royal. So her family information was recorded and preserved. The genealogical and historical records showed her as having been married just once, to Osbern FitzRichard [c. 1055-1080]. However, Macbeth does not appear among the many Shakespearean plays which we know to have been performed before King James. The only record of a performance was in 1610 at the Globe Theatre. The play was not popular enough to be published in Quarto form and sufficiently unpopular that it was substantially revised. It is possible then that the play was either never performed for James or if it was, it was unpopular with him.

Answer 4

It's spectulated that it may have been written for King James I because:

1. It's in Scotland and James was Scottish.

2. One of its characters who Holinshed says was the ancestor of the Stuarts and therefore of James features prominently and is made into a hero in the play.

3. It has witches and James was apparently very interested in witches.

There is no evidence to show that the play was actually performed at court or that King James liked it, so this remains just speculation.

Answer 5

Obama decided that it would be best to describe his economic plan by posing as a playwright. He specifically used iambic pentameter as a metaphor for his healthcare plan. The main character is named after his dog.

Answer 6

It was written for James the sixth of Scotland, first of England

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Answer 7

Shakespeare wrote the play Macbeth to be performed for King James I