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If Mendel's experiments were not true breeding, then he would not be ablt to tell the recessive alleles showed up in the F2 progeny. Since the F1 generation would have showed the dominant trait regardless, the only way to show the recessive alleles carry to the F2 is to have true breeding parents.

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How did mendels experiments would have been different if he had not worked with true breeding plants?

If Mendel's experiments were not true breeding, then he would not be ablt to tell the recessive alleles showed up in the F2 progeny. Since the F1 generation would have showed the dominant trait regardless, the only way to show the recessive alleles carry to the F2 is to have true breeding parents.


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