It can only be done through legal means. If there are liens against the property, it can be transferred or repossessed.
You may be able to get a reverse mortgage with the written consent of the fee owners. However, the lender may require the property be transferred to your name alone.
With cash of course......Yes... Spousal Consent would be needed if the property was to be purchased by taking out a loan in both spouses names...But there are no laws requiring spousal consent for another spouse to make cash purchases of property...
Yes, a spouse can transfer a portion of their property to another person. In the case of shared property within a marriage, the spouse will generally need to get consent from the person involved in the marriage.
In general, trespassing is going onto the property of another, without their consent. If they consented, it is not trespass. Now- can you show you were invited?
actions occur when there is now perfect knowledge or consent, or when either or both of the knowledge or consent is partial. Angelbunchfranco :)
That is the option of the executrix. They don't have to get permission from every heir to manage the estate.
Data piracy comes about when people gain access to data that is the intellectual property of another person and claim it as theirs. Piracy also involves monetary gain from another's intellectual property without his consent.
In the US, at least, you can play "domination" games with the dominated person's consent. But you cannot abuse another person without their consent. You cannot take their money or property without their consent. You cannot prevent them from seeking employment or accepting payment for legal work without their consent.
Spying on another person's device without their consent or knowledge is illegal and intrudes on their privacy. If they are a minor and you even save pictures of their face without their consent you can get into legal trouble.
If the co-owner is agreeable or the house is titled in a way which allows the property to be transferred without the consent of other owners then it can be done using a quitclaim deed a simple and inexpensive procedure.
No. If the property is owned by two people and one did not consent to the lease then the lease is invalid. You need the written consent of all the owners.No. If the property is owned by two people and one did not consent to the lease then the lease is invalid. You need the written consent of all the owners.No. If the property is owned by two people and one did not consent to the lease then the lease is invalid. You need the written consent of all the owners.No. If the property is owned by two people and one did not consent to the lease then the lease is invalid. You need the written consent of all the owners.
Not if the property is owned by both parties.