Assuming both were STD free, one had to have some sexual contact in order to be infected.
No because they only have sex with the one man who is married to them.
Yes. No states in the US require STD testing to obtain a marriage certificate.
From his girlfriend Selena Gomez she is the one who had the STD first
Not necessarily. If he has an STD, that does not mean he got it from sleeping around. He could have had it from birth (his parents) or he could have gotten it from a girl before he was married.
Its a title you get when some one with the STD title on knifes you
Aids.
Yes, one could. #include<iostream> int main() { int answer=42; std::cout<<answer<<std::endl; std::cout<<666<<std::endl; return(0); }
STD's and ulcers are not related. That is not to say a person with an ulcer could have one. But so could a person without one.....
No . . . an STD is a Sexually Transmitted Disease. HIV infection is just one of many STDs.
In the UK, 0140 is an incomplete STD code (telephone area code); you need one more digit. In India, 0140 is an invalid STD code.
Yes. Even a rash accompanied by itching could seem to be an STD and just be a simple rash.
he has an std