I don't think it can be derived.
It all depends on the fuels available energy, the mass of the craft, and any force the craft may have to overcome (see Newtons second law of motion). Also, although it'd take a while one could conceivably cross the entire universe on one gallon. As long as nothing counteracts the force of the propellant the craft will never stop (see Newtons first law of motion).
The second law is about how the force affects the motion. A relatively small force could make, say, a tennis ball accelerate a lot (e.g. changing its direction completely), but could not make the motion of, for example, a truck change very much. This is because the mass of the objects are very different. Similarly, if two objects had the same mass, a large force would change the motion a lot, where as a small force not so much. So the change in motion depends on the size of the force and the mass of the object.
Newton's 1st Law: If F = 0 then object is at rest or in a uniform rectilinear motion.Newton's 2nd Law: F = ma.Starting from Newton's second Law: F = ma, if F = 0 then a = 0 then v = constant. then the object is either at rest (v = 0 = constant) or in a uniform rectilinear motion (v=constant).This is what is widespread, but wait...Newton is not stupid! If his First Law could be derived from his second law, so why he stated it as separate law?!There is a common misconception about Newton's first law. The correct statement of Newton's first law is:"In the absence of forces, it is possible to specify a frame of reference where the object is either at rest, or in a uniform rectilinear motion. This frame of reference is called inertial frame of reference".Notice that! Newton's first law central point is to define inertial frame of reference, and guarantee that such frame exists.Absolutely, There is no way to derive this from newton's second law.Hope you best times.You may contact me at: vina.vinarue.rue@gmail.comNewton's 1st Law is derived from the 2nd Law F=ma, by setting F to zero, 0=ma,thus a=o/m or no force, no acceleration.
With the help of a Jedi, Only joking if it is Newtons your referring to it could be a Newton meter
19 Newtons They need to be in the same direction for the highest resultant
No, inertia is derived from the first law: The velocity of a body remains constant unless the body is acted upon by an external forcein this case, velocity is 0m/s and therefore remains constantinertia also exist in moving objects as well.
newtons
Isaac Newton's first law of motion deals with forces and changes in velocity. For just a moment, let us imagine that you can apply only one force to an object. That is, you could choose push the object to the right or you could choose to push it to the left, but not to the left and right at the same time, and also not up and to the right at the same time, and so on.
If you divide 195 pounds by 2.2, you could convert it into kilograms. So 195 pounds is equal to 88.45kg. The standard acceleration due to gravity on Earth's surface is approximately 9.807(meters per second squared). And the mass here is 88.45kg. Now you can use the formula F=ma So, F=(88.45kg) x (9.807(meters per second squared)) Then F= 867.4 (kilogram meters per second squared-which is the same as Newtons) So F= 867.4N (Newtons) Hope that wasn't confusing. I tried to make it as straightforward as possible.
It could mean 9 times some variable N, or it could be 9 Newtons.
If you mean in the SI, it is defined to be a fundamental unit. Consider, for example, Newton's Second Law (force = mass x acceleration), used to define force as a derived unit in the SI. Acceleration is already a derived unit (derived from distance and time) - let's keep it this way, for the sake of discussion. Now, in SI units, force is defined to be derived from mass (and acceleration). Mass is the "fundamental" unit, and force is the "derived" unit. The same relationship, i.e. Newton's Second Law, could just as well have been used the other way round. That is, force could have been defined as the fundamental unit, and mass derived from force (and acceleration). The creators of SI basically defined certain units as "base units" because they could be defined with a high degree of precision.
There is no answer to your question because a perpetual motion machine is impossible. If one could be built, its own motion would be considered work.