Want this question answered?
No, Mexico never had Florida. The US goal was ownership of Alta California and Nuevo Mexico.
The Adams -Onis Treaty of 1819 ceded Florida to the US, and settled the question of a Spanish-Us boundary in the west. Spain gave up claims to land north of California but retained ownership of Texas and California.
The US influence could be used on two oceans,
France sold the northwest as part of the Louisiana Purchase, Mexico sold Texas to California, and Russia had prior ownership to Alaska.
California is neither. In the United States a territory is a location under US ownership which has not yet become a state. A colony, as I understand it, would be a location where we exert full control but no ownership. We do not have colonies, technically, though the difference between a territory and a colony might be debated. An example of a territory is Puerto Rico. It is fully owned and controlled by the US. Its citizens are US citizens. But it has not yet become a state and so has no official seats in Congress.
Ownership or possession.
Greater concentration of ownership
Because then the United States would have more land, meaning more people, which means that the merchants will only get more money or profits.
The US wasn't interested in New Mexico. The real prize for the Mexican-American War (1846-1848) was California. See related questions.
California
Having Energy benefit to our health is we could do things ENERGETIC or with ENERGY rather it gives us strenght in our daily lives to move , dance , etc.
If California could have been admited to the Union as two states - North California and South California, divided along the line of the Missouri Compromise, which had managed to keep the peace since 1820.