The Bible formed a part of the cultural background which Shakespeare and his audience shared. He therefore felt at ease alluding to Biblical stories and texts and did so constantly.
He even took one of his titles from scripture: Measure for Measure. The passage is For with what judgement ye judge, ye shalbe judged, and with what measure ye mete, it shalbe measured to you again. (Matthew 7:2; Geneva Bible).
Shakespeare's characters quote from the Bible with ease: consider Hamlet's "O Jepthah, judge of Israel, what a treasure hadst thou." Polonius is unfortunately not aware of the story, so when he finds out that Jepthah's treasure was "one fair daughter who he loved passing well", he thinks it is flattery. Hamlet knows that it is not and that Jepthah, like Polonius, sacrificed his daughter for his own ends.
Shylock's use of a Biblical argument to justify charging interest on loans induces Antonio's sneering remark that "The devil can cite scripture to his own purposes."
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the bible
No, women were not on his plays.
The Puritans disapproved of all plays whether or not they were by Shakespeare. They disapproved of such forms of entertainment, recommending listening to sermons and reading the Bible instead.
Yes he did.
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blank verse
Voltaire did not directly use Shakespeare as a source for his plays, but he was influenced by Shakespeare's work and admired his dramatic style. Voltaire criticized Shakespeare's use of emotional excess and his unconventional narrative techniques, yet he recognized the impact of Shakespeare on the theatrical landscape. In his own plays, Voltaire sought to blend classical traditions with new ideas, drawing from various influences, including Shakespeare's emphasis on character and human emotion.
No, simply.
I'd use the word entertaining.
Shakespeare and his contemporaries often used blank verse (unrhymed iambic pentameter) for the dialogue in their plays.
Storms appear most prominently in the plays The Tempest and King Lear.