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friction opposes the mechanical advantage of a simple machine.

for example, if you had a inclined plane that gave you an advantage of 3:1 (3 times longer then it is high) the frictional force cause by an object being pushed up the ramp would be in the direction opposite to the direction of motion equal to u*N (mu times the normal force of the object)

so for a 10 kg object being pushed up the ramp, under normal gravity = 9.81 N and a coefficent of friction = .3, the frictional force would be equal to 3 N.

if you were pushing the object on flat ground with a force of 15N, you would actually need 18 N to maintain the same speed of having no friction

appling this to the ramp, if 15N is needed to push on flat ground, only 5 N would be needed to push the object up a 0 friction ramp, and 8 N would be needed to push it up a ramp with friction to maintain the same speed.

this is true for all simple machines, and it only depends on where the friction is being created, weather it be friction between a screw and wood, a rope and the pulley, or the fulcrum and a lever

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12y ago
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11y ago

If IMA means mechanical advantage then friction has no effect.

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Q: How does friction affect the mechanical advantage of a simple machine?
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What factor affect the mechanical advantage of simple machine?

friction affects the M.A in a simple machine.


What happens to the mechanical advantage of a machine if friction is reduced through the use of oil or some other means?

Wear and tear of moving parts would be reduced. Less energy would be needed to run the machine, as there would be less friction to be overcome. A well lubricated machine is more efficient than a neglected machine with unoiled parts.


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How does a decrease in height affect the actual echanical advantage of the inclined plane?

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