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Q: How does friction change a machines mechanical advantage?
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What happens to the mechanical advantage of a machine if friction is reduced through the use of oil or some other means?

Wear and tear of moving parts would be reduced. Less energy would be needed to run the machine, as there would be less friction to be overcome. A well lubricated machine is more efficient than a neglected machine with unoiled parts.


Still other machines allow you to change the direction of the input force resulting in a mechanical advantage equal to one?

Yes, sometimes a pulley is used just to change the direction of the force, rather than to create a mechanical advantage. This can also be done with gears.


How do you the Mechanical advantage of a wedge?

Just change the angle of the wedge. The thinner the wedge, the greater the mechanical advantage.


Explain how the mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle change as the size of the wheel increases.?

Explain how the mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle change as the size of the wheel increases?


Can an objects mechanical energy change?

Yes, it can. For instance, if you have friction in the system mechanical energy of the system is not conserved.


How does a wedge change an input force?

A change can happen when a mechanical advantage increases as it becomes longer and thinner.


Does friction cause mechanical energy to change to thermal?

Yes.Yes.Yes.Yes.


When there is no friction or air resistance what should the change in mechanical energy be?

None


Why does the mechanical (total) energy of the skater not change over time?

It certainly does; mechanical energy will be wasted due to friction. Otherwise, if you disregard friction, the fact that the total mechanical energy is conserved follows from conservation of energy.


How does the position of the fulcrum change the nechanical advantage?

You get greater mechanical advantage the closer the fulcrum is to the resistance (load).


Is it true friction cause some mechanical energy to change to thermal energy?

Yes.


What is true about the total mechanical energy of a pendulum in the absence of friction?

In that case, the total mechanical energy won't change.