The ideal mechanical advantage is determined by the shape, size, and
configuration of the simple machine.
The weight of the load, the size of the applied force, or the weight of the
components or materials of the machine itself have no effect on the ideal
mechanical advantage.
Mechanical advantage is maximum when weight lifted is extremly high and for which C/W is extremely small so as to be negleted, Max. Mechanical Advantage=1/m
The use of a pulley increases the mechanical advantage in a system by reducing the amount of force needed to lift an object. This is achieved by distributing the weight of the object over multiple ropes and pulleys, making it easier to lift heavier loads.
Depending on the type of pulley system you have (Fixed/ movable/ combined pulley) using either of these will give you mechanical advantage. The different pulley types are designed to even the weight of the object your pulled out, this will enable you to lift heavier objects with a lighter pull
The mechanical advantage would be 1 because the force required to life the mass of an object becomes 1/2 the original weight of the object.
yes
The weight of an object is redistributed, making a smaller mass to be moved at any point of energy.
For a pulley, when is it that the mechanical advantage is greater than 1 and when is it that it is equal to 1? If a rope was hung over a pulley with unequal weights applied to both ends, the larger weight (77kg) would pull the lesser weight (30kg) upward, and so what would the mechanical advantage there be? The thing about this question is that if a rope were hung over a pulley and the tension at each point was the same (neglecting the mass of the rope and pulley), then how is it that if both ends of the rope point downward that the mechanical advantage becomes 2 (if there was just that one pulley)? Is the mechanical advantage any different if someone was applying a force to one end of the rope compared to gravity acting alone?
You must also know how much the fish weighs. The idea is to divide the weight of the fish, by the 300 N of force you are applying. That will be the mechanical advantage.
For a pulley, when is it that the mechanical advantage is greater than 1 and when is it that it is equal to 1? If a rope was hung over a pulley with unequal weights applied to both ends, the larger weight (77kg) would pull the lesser weight (30kg) upward, and so what would the mechanical advantage there be? The thing about this question is that if a rope were hung over a pulley and the tension at each point was the same (neglecting the mass of the rope and pulley), then how is it that if both ends of the rope point downward that the mechanical advantage becomes 2 (if there was just that one pulley)? Is the mechanical advantage any different if someone was applying a force to one end of the rope compared to gravity acting alone?
Using a movable pulley system will decrease the force needed to lift the car by increasing the mechanical advantage. This advantage is achieved by distributing the weight of the car over multiple segments of the rope, effectively reducing the amount of force required to lift it. Consequently, while the distance over which the force is applied increases, the effort needed to lift the load decreases.
A lever is a very useful tool that lets us exchange weight for distance. For example (theoretically) if you had to move a 200 pound sack into a car, but couldn't lift it, you could divide it into 8 parts, each being 25 pounds, and move each one individually into the car. It would be easy, however it would take more distance (lifting into the car 8 times instead of 1)
by using certain mechanical objects, like a pulley, you can use the object's own weight to its advantage. Also, by exploiting gravity and the object's own weight, you can use inertia to roll the object down the hill or yet better in a free fall.