Couple of problems:
-- You don't say how many ounces are in one of the "beers". So we'll have to come up
with some kind of answer that doesn't need that figure.
-- You also don't say in what respect the "beers" are to be equal to the whiskey.
We're going out on a limb and assuming you're asking about their respective
alcohol contents.
"80 prof" means 40% by volume.
So you're really asking for the volume of beer in which 3.5% of the volume is equal to 40% of one ounce.
0.035 V = 0.4
V = 0.4 / 0.035 = 11.4286 ounces.
We don't know a whole lot about beers, but we suspect they may be available in 12-ounce cans.
If so, the calculation above seems to suggest that the alcohol contents in a beer and a bump
are roughly equal. Who would have guessed it!
No asmount of bear will ever be equal to whiskey. They are different substances.
4 1/2 beers at 5% alcohol (like Coors)
volume in litres is equal to its weight in kgs 1000ltrs is equal to 1000kgs
There is no metric unit of capacity or volume that is equal to 1000 millimeters. This is because millimeters is length, and it has no relevance to capacity and/or volume.
Density is equal to the mass divided by the volume.
By volume, no. By standard serving (1 can beer = 1 shot of whiskey) they are equal.
three
Yes - as long as the pressure and temperature are constant.
Yes.
No. Only if the two components have the same density (specific gravity), which is highly unlikely.
No asmount of bear will ever be equal to whiskey. They are different substances.
4 1/2 beers at 5% alcohol (like Coors)
There are 25.6 ounces in a fifth of whiskey. A fifth is 1/5 of a gallon.
no, but 6 to 94 would be.
a lot
As with any volume measurement, the important measurement is the radius of the container. A 'finger' of whiskey in a narrow glass will measure a lot less than one in a wide glass. It will also depend on the thickness of the finger used in the measurement..... my fingers are quite a lot thicker than my wife's.
6 pints of beer is equal to 12 cups.