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Q: In humans normal color vision is dominant over colorblindness. A colorblind male marries a female who is a carrier for color blindness. What is the probability that a colorblind child would be born to?
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Is colorblindness a disability?

Not necessarily. The allele for colorblindness is recessive. For a female, in order to be colorblind she must have to recessive alleles for colorblindness. Example: XcXc would be colorblind. XCXc would be a carrier for colorblindness, but not colorblind. For a male, because colorblindness is a sex-linked gene, he only needs one allele to be colorblind. Example: XcY is colorblind. XCY is not colorblind.


What are the differences between alleles and genes?

An allele is a form of a gene. Basically, in simple Mendelian genetics, there are two genes that can be expressed: the dominant form and the recessive form. A pea plant can be tall (dominant) or short (recessive). If a plant is tall, what controls that tallness is a gene. The fact that it is tall is due to the presence of the allele. ----------------------------------------- Simple improvement: The gene locus is the position on the chromosome that controls a specific trait (e.g. colorblindness). Alleles are different genetic sequences that can occur at that position to give a specific trait (colorblind, not colorblind). Since in humans there are two gene loci for each trait (one from mother and one from father), alleles can either be dominant-recessive (recessive only expressed when dominant is absent), codominant, or incompletely dominant, etc.


Which parental pair could produce females with colorblindness?

Yes. Two normal-visioned parents can produce a color blind child only if both the parents have are heterozygous. To determine the phenotypes of the parents, you will have to look at their parents.


What is the probability of obtaining a dominant phenotype from self-fertilization of a heterozygous individual is?

75%


Is colorblindness a dominant or recessive trait?

Color blindness is an inherited trait that can be passed on through reproduction but it has some peculiarities. It is recessive and not very prevalent in the gene pool. Because of this, color blindness does not appear very often in the population. In addition, it is a sex-linked gene on the X chromosome. Thus males only have one gene to express color vision. If it happens to be the recessive allele, then males are color blind. Females, on the other hand, must have both alleles recessive in order to be color blind.source: ciese.org/curriculum/genproj/activity35.html

Related questions

What is the probability that a colorblind woman and a man with normal vision will have a colorblind daughter?

It all will depend on what kind of (recessive or dominant) alleles are responsible for the colorblind characteristic and what kind of alleles do the parental genes have.


Is colorblindness a disability?

Not necessarily. The allele for colorblindness is recessive. For a female, in order to be colorblind she must have to recessive alleles for colorblindness. Example: XcXc would be colorblind. XCXc would be a carrier for colorblindness, but not colorblind. For a male, because colorblindness is a sex-linked gene, he only needs one allele to be colorblind. Example: XcY is colorblind. XCY is not colorblind.


What would be the color vision of children if their mom is colorblind and their dad is normal?

Colorblindness is a recessive, sex-linked trait, and the gene that causes it occurs on the X chromosome. For the mother to be colorblind, she must have two copies of the gene and be homozygous recessive. The father, on the other hand, can not have the gene, because he (as a male) only has one X chromosome. So, if we let Xc represent the recessive gene for colorblindness and Xn represent the normal gene, the the mother is XcXc and the father is XnY. All of their children will receive the recessive gene from their mother. In the males, this means that they will be colorblind, because the chromosome they get from their father will by the Y chromosome. The daughters, however, will get the Xn gene, which is dominant and will override the gene for colorblindness. Thus, all of the couple's sons will be colorblind, and none of their daughters will be.


A womens father is colorblind She marries a colorblind man Will there son or daughter be colorblind?

Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. This means girls (who have the sex chromosomes XX) must have a colorblind X from dad and a colorblind X from mom. Boys only need to have one colorblind X to be colorblind because they have sex chromosomes XY (and have only 1 X). If the dad has it, he has the colorblind X. If the daughter has it, she must have gotten her mom's colorblind X. If the mom is colorblind, then every child they have will be colorblind. If the mom is not colorblind, then she must be a carrier - she must have 1 normal X and 1 colorblind X. Mom is either colorblind (with 2 colorblind Xs) or she is a carrier. Dad is definitely colorblind.


Why does color blindness only occur in males?

Here is a simple explanation:Remember that all males have an XY and females have XX, colorblindness is on the X chromosome, and since it is passed on by the X chromosome, this means that females have one good X and one colorblind X . Since colorblindness is recessive, this means the good X can provide the necessary pigments and the female is not colorblind unless she receive two X's that have colorblindness (one from her mother and one from her father), highly unlikely.On the other hand, since the Y has very few genes on it, the pigment missing in the X carrying colorblindness would not be replaced and thus colorblindness would occur in males with the X colorblindness gene from the mother.More info on colorblindnessman pppl on here are smart i didn't know that!!!!! :)


If Couples that have normal vision what is the probability of them having a color blind daughter and color blind son?

It depends on a number of different factors. If colorblind is common in either family but the mother/father were lucky enough not to get it, then its a recessive gene. but if its not common in either family then its a very low chance the child will be color blind. Although, if there are numerous people on both sides of the family the probability is very high. It all depends on a lot of different factors. How dominant is the gene? How many relatives are colorblind? If there are any, and they have children, are they colorblind? The easiest way to figure out if the child will be colorblind is to have the kid and test it for colorblind-ness.


Is the allele for retinal blindness dominant?

I think it is dominant in heterozygote form


Is colour blindness dominant or regressive?

Regressive.


Is color blindness a sex linked disease?

Yes. A person is color blind if all his or her X chromosomes have the defective gene. A man have one X chromosome, and a woman has two. Thus: If only the father is color blind - The probability that the son is color blind is 0% - The probability that the daughter is color blind is 0% - The probability that the daughter is a bearer of the defective gene is 100% If the mother is a bearer of the defective gene, but is not color blind, and the father is not color blind - The probability that the son is color blind is 50% - The probability that the daughter is color blind is 0% - The probability that the daughter is a bearer of the defective gene is 50% If the mother is a bearer of the defective gene but not color blind, and the father is color blind - The probability that the son is color blind is 50% - The probability that the daughter is color blind is 50% - The probability that the daughter is a bearer of the defective gene is 100% If the mother is color blind and the father is not - The probability that the son is color blind is 100% - The probability that the daughter is color blind is 0% - The probability that the daughter is a bearer of the defective gene is 100% If both parents are color blind - The probability that the child, regardless of gender, is color blind is 100%


Why do color blindness occur more often in males?

It is rare in females because they have 2 X chromosomes so they have the trait that stops colorblindness, but men have an X and Y chromosome so the Y chromosome does not back up the other X chromosome and makes men have more of a chance to get colorblindness that doesn't mean girls cant get it, just means girls have a better chance to stop it.


Is colorblindness a carried or dominant trait?

The gene is carried and the trait is almost entirely found in males.


Why are there more colorblind males than there are colorblind females?

Colorblindness is a trait that is linked to our X chromosome - it's a sex-linked, recessive trait that is attached to the X chromosome.For males, the 23rd pair is XY, and for females, XX.The trait for colorblindness lies on the X chromosome and can either be dominant or recessive. (For my example, we'll just say X' for recessive and X dominant for simplicity's sake.)Females have the advantage of having two X chromosomes. I won't go in to specific detail, but the possible combinations of chromosomes for females would be XX, X'X, XX', and X'X'. Only with X'X', would a female be colorblind.As for males, they only have one X chromosome, and the combinations are XY or X'Y.As you can see, the chances of colorblind males are much, much higher due to having only one X-chromosome, which is why you'll find more colorblind males than colorblind females.Of course, there is much more to it than just that, but that goes way beyond the scope of what I can remember. And I'm not too much in the mood of reopening my genetics textbook. ;)