Yes since there are 2 cups per pint.
In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.
There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).
Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.
Neither is. They're equal volumes.
Smaller
Bigger
cups
Those two quantities are equal.
There are 2 cups in one pint. Therefore, 28 cups is equal to 28/2 = 14 pints.
1 pint = 2 cups 28 pints x 2 cups per pint= 56 cups
Neither, they are both the same
A pint is 2 cups, so 2 times 14 equals 28 cups
7 pints
14 pints = 28 cups
The two are equal.
how did you get the answer
28 cups
1/8 pint = 1 cup → 1 pint = 8 cups → 14 pints = 14 × 8 cups = 112 cups → 14 pints is much more than 28 cups
28