Is gotten correct grammar?

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In Grammar
Although the British stopped using the past participle gotten about three hundred years ago, the American colonists and their descendants--especially in New England--still tend to use it.

Some English teachers have tried to ban its usage to make American English conform to British English, especially during the nineteenth and early twentieth century when there was a movement to purify English. Others are just not used to its use because it is not used in their region and hear it as an error.

Ultimately, language is convention. If you are writing for a formal audience outside of New England, you might want to use the simple past form got instead. It is like the dictum to never end a sentence with a preposition because that is something some people just will not put--ummm--up with which some people just will not put!

Yes.

For example: "Since I last saw you, you have gotten big!"

Gotten is correct, and very old. In England many people wrongly assume that gotten is a modern Americanism, but the truth is the English more-or-less stopped using it, and have forgotten (!) that they used to use it.

That said, "gotten" isn't good English. In most cases other, more precise and meaningful words should be used in its place.

While "have got" sounds wrong to American ears, "have gotten" can usually be replaced by "have become", and "have been able to" or "have had the chance/opportunity to" would make better sense in other situations.

"You would have got along with him" is proper English.
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No. The correct form is "got", without the "had". Example, I got what I wanted.

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Correct grammar on computer, use spell check. In general, try to memorize the way things are spelled, get a grammar book and memorize the rules of grammar.

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Yes, "best possible" is correct grammar, as in this sentence: This is the best possible outcome considering the circumstances.

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Yes, it is perfectly correct. 'If you were a mayor, you would be in control of a town council.' To refer to the mayor of a specific place, for example your own town, you would omit 'a' or replace it by 'the': 'If you were (the) mayor, you would be able to change the transport policy.'

Which is correct grammar did is or did was?

You would never put "did is" or "did was" together in a sentence. However a sentence containing 'did' would normally also use 'was' rather than 'is' because 'did' is the past tense of 'do' and 'was' is the past tense of 'is' - it would be normal for the tenses of the sentence to match.

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No, it isn't. You could say: I have not gotten paid. [I did some work already, and the person I did it for needs to pay me.] or, I didn't get paid for that work. or, I haven't been paid yet. or, I need to be paid for the work I did. or, You need to pay me for the work I did for you.

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How accurate is Whitesmoke in grammar correction?

Whitesmoke has won several online awards for grammar correction. What makes it popular is its ability to point out more advanced grammatical errors such as subject;verb conjugation and homonyms.

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Yes. There is no such thing as a "split infinitive." The term is a school-marmish over-correction. Sticking too many words between the infinitive marker "to" and its verb may make it harder for the hearer/reader to tell that the verb is tenseless, but "to boldly go" is perfectly clear, and it sounds… ( Full Answer )

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It depends on context. For example, in a conversation between twopeople: Person #1: Those items are not for sale. Person #2: Which are? In that context, it is understood that "Which are?" means "Whichitems are for sale?"