Is gotten correct grammar?

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In Grammar
Although the British stopped using the past participle gotten about three hundred years ago, the American colonists and their descendants--especially in New England--still tend to use it.

Some English teachers have tried to ban its usage to make American English conform to British English, especially during the nineteenth and early twentieth century when there was a movement to purify English. Others are just not used to its use because it is not used in their region and hear it as an error.

Ultimately, language is convention. If you are writing for a formal audience outside of New England, you might want to use the simple past form got instead. It is like the dictum to never end a sentence with a preposition because that is something some people just will not put--ummm--up with which some people just will not put!

Yes.

For example: "Since I last saw you, you have gotten big!"

Gotten is correct, and very old. In England many people wrongly assume that gotten is a modern Americanism, but the truth is the English more-or-less stopped using it, and have forgotten (!) that they used to use it.

That said, "gotten" isn't good English. In most cases other, more precise and meaningful words should be used in its place.

While "have got" sounds wrong to American ears, "have gotten" can usually be replaced by "have become", and "have been able to" or "have had the chance/opportunity to" would make better sense in other situations.

"You would have got along with him" is proper English.
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Is this here correct grammar?

If you mean as in "This here rifle has a hair trigger," it is substandard, but not wrong. Don't use it in writing.

Is why to correct grammar?

It is very important to correct grammar. This is because the wrongpunctuation, or the wrong word order, can change the entire meaningof a sentence.

Is them and you correct grammar?

I is not wrong... but "You and Them" is better... Well it also depends on what you're trying to say. If you're simply naming people, yeah "you and them" (If someone asks you who went somewhere, say "you and them"). However, in most cases you'll be using that phrase as a subject of a sentence, and ( Full Answer )

What is the correct grammar for you and I or you and me?

That depends on the context of the sentence in which you are using them.. If for example you are suggesting that you and another should go somewhere, the correct use would be "you and I." As in:. You and I should go to the gas station. . On the other hand, if you and your friend are the receiver ( Full Answer )

Is she and you or her and you correct grammar?

It depends if the phrase is subject or the object of a sentence. if it is a subject, the correct term is "she and you," as in "She and you went to the park" if it is an object, the correct term is "her and you," as in "The milk tasted sour to her and you"

Is you were correct grammar?

Not at all Another answer: If you mean 'Is the clause "you were" correct grammar?' the answer is 'yes'. If you mean 'Is the clause "is you were" correct grammar?' the answer is 'no'. If you had taken the trouble to write your question more clearly, you would have helped the people who you hope ( Full Answer )

Correct grammar for a and an?

The indefinite article an is used before words beginningwith a vowel sound. For example: an hour, an excuse. Itsabbreviated form a is used before words beginning with aconsonant sound. For example: a union, a house

What is the correct grammar for they and he?

He/She is one person and they is plural. It can be awkward sometimes if you have to say 'A student can carry a book if he wants,' when most people tend to put they instead of he because saying he eliminates girls, and 'he or she' is wordy. But the subject is 'a student,' and therefore, 'he' must be ( Full Answer )

What is the correct grammar i or Me after for?

any time a pronoun follows a preposition ("I" and "me" are pronouns, "for" is a prep.) it is in the objective case because it is the object of the preposition. Objective case pronouns are: me, you, him, her, them, us. Nominative case pronouns are used as the subject of a sentence (the person or peop ( Full Answer )

Is 'as per discussed' correct grammar?

No. This is not correct. "As (we) discussed" would be correct "As per" means "In accordance with", and cannot be used with a conjugated verb such as "discussed", but must refer to a noun, like a specific event. e.g. - "As per our discussion"

Is the word gotten correct?

The word gotten is a word and this is the dictionary meaning: gotten |ˈgätn| past participle of get .USAGE As past participles of get, the words got andgotten both date back to Middle English. In NorthAmerican English, got and gotten are not identical in use. Gotten usually implies the proce ( Full Answer )

Is Lois's correct grammar?

No. The correct spelling of "Lois's" would be "Lois' ". The 's denotes possession. If you are talking about something that belongs to Lois, Lois's is correct.

Is 'has got' correct grammar?

It might sound ok in conversation but grammatically it is incorrect. The proper way would be to say, "Sally has a dog" instead of "Sally has got a dog."

Does Anyone Know -correct grammar?

Correct grammar is taught at a very young age to children inschool. Many classes have spelling lessons that eventually helpthese young children develop the skills to understand correct usageof grammar later on in their life.

Is just gotten back a correct grammar?

In this case we would need to know the full sentence with the subject. For instance, if you say I have or I've...it would be correct to use gotten. However, although the sentence may be correct if you are using "have" in the sentence, the best way to say this sentence would be to eliminate have alto ( Full Answer )

Is an effete brain correct grammar?

It is a grammatically correct placement of a noun and and adjective. Whether it means anything is another matter. Effete has many synonyms, depending on context, including exhausted and sterile , either of which is likely to be a better choice.

Is it correct grammar to say 'It will be I'?

Yes, 'It will be I' is correct grammar. The verb 'to be' takes a complement, not an object. Hence: 'Which girl is your sister?' 'That is she.' (Not 'That is her.') 'It was they who stole the money.' (Not 'It was them'.) 'Will it be we who cook dinner?' (Not 'Will it be us?') 'Who will make the o ( Full Answer )

Is you all correct grammar?

"You all" as a second person plural pronoun is non-Standard English. It may be correct in the informal speech of some dialects, but never in writing. Formally, you would use the word "you" or the words "you all" when referring to a group of people in the second person and "they" when referring to ( Full Answer )

Is had got correct grammar?

No. The correct form is "got", without the "had". Example, I got what I wanted.

How do you correct your grammar?

Correct grammar on computer, use spell check. In general, try to memorize the way things are spelled, get a grammar book and memorize the rules of grammar.

Is best possible a correct grammar?

Yes, "best possible" is correct grammar, as in this sentence: This is the best possible outcome considering the circumstances.

When you say if you were a mayor is that the correct grammar?

Yes, it is perfectly correct. 'If you were a mayor, you would be in control of a town council.' To refer to the mayor of a specific place, for example your own town, you would omit 'a' or replace it by 'the': 'If you were (the) mayor, you would be able to change the transport policy.'

Which is correct grammar did is or did was?

You would never put "did is" or "did was" together in a sentence. However a sentence containing 'did' would normally also use 'was' rather than 'is' because 'did' is the past tense of 'do' and 'was' is the past tense of 'is' - it would be normal for the tenses of the sentence to match.

Have not get paid is correct grammar?

No, it isn't. You could say: I have not gotten paid. [I did some work already, and the person I did it for needs to pay me.] or, I didn't get paid for that work. or, I haven't been paid yet. or, I need to be paid for the work I did. or, You need to pay me for the work I did for you.

Is it correct grammar to say A family which?

This depends on the context. The word 'which' applies to the object of a sentence. If starting a sentence, it is generally more proper to use "A family that" instead. Examples: A family that prays together stays together. I would like a family which eats meals together.

Is it correct grammar to say 'It will be I?

Yes, "It will be I" is correct, but it is not always used, because some people think it sounds overly formal and stiff. While technically not correct, "It will be me" is often used instead, especially informally.

Is has gotten correct English?

It is correct in America in some contexts. In Britain, it is archaic ( and many speakers mistakenly think it is an Americanism ).

Is the question 'Are we understood' correct grammar?

Yes. It is the question form of the statement "we are understood." This can have two uses. One is just the simple question, as if asking in a foreign language situation. The other is the "royal we" used by some authority figures to make a point, rather than saying "do you comprehend the instruction ( Full Answer )

How accurate is Whitesmoke in grammar correction?

Whitesmoke has won several online awards for grammar correction. What makes it popular is its ability to point out more advanced grammatical errors such as subject;verb conjugation and homonyms.

Is it correct grammar to say mommy and me?

It depends on the sentence. Always take out the "mommy" and see how the sentence sounds. For example: "There was a nice dinner awaiting mommy and me when we arrived". Change it to "There was a nice dinner awaiting me when I arrived" That is correct. Now try this: " Mommy and me went to the movies". ( Full Answer )

Is it I or me correct grammar?

It depends on how they are used in a sentence. When it is the subject , or doing something, you use 'I." Example: I went shopping this morning. When it is an object , or someone is doing or giving something to you, you use "me." Examples: My mom kissed me. My brother gave me a gift.

Is it does she clears your doubt a correct grammar?

Your question is grammatically and idiomatically incorrect in many ways. First of all "grammar", the way you are using it, cannot take the indefinate article "a". It is idiomatic to say "Is [quote sentence here] correct grammar?" So it would appear that the phrase/ sentence you are asking about is ( Full Answer )

Is to boldly go correct grammar?

Yes. There is no such thing as a "split infinitive." The term is a school-marmish over-correction. Sticking too many words between the infinitive marker "to" and its verb may make it harder for the hearer/reader to tell that the verb is tenseless, but "to boldly go" is perfectly clear, and it sounds ( Full Answer )

What is the correct grammar of their vs there?

Their: includes someone's property There: is location (think of whERE; thERE) They're (they are) going over there (location) to get their (property) xbox.

What is the correct grammar?

Correct grammar means using words in such a way that everyone willbe able to understand what you are comunicating. This means thatthe accepted and normal conventions of a language should be used.

Is which are correct grammar?

It depends on context. For example, in a conversation between twopeople: Person #1: Those items are not for sale. Person #2: Which are? In that context, it is understood that "Which are?" means "Whichitems are for sale?"