yes it is
In most cases, self defense.
The discharge of a firearm with the intent to kill someone is first degree homicide (or occasionally self defense).
Insanity defense and self defense
Self defense, crime has no boundaries
Not unless he is convicted of a crime, which is extremely unlikely. Self-defense is not a crime.
It is possible. There are laws on the use of lethal force which must be followed.
Depends on the situation... Of course, if a man was killing a woman through physical means or was about to commit such actions and the woman happened to have a lethal firearm and shot the man, then no it would not be considered neglegence. That situation of self-defense was valid and legal. But if a man had threatened the woman with violence instead or had no source of malicous intent to harm then no, she has no authority to use the firearm against the man. Self-defense would not be a valid nor legal choice. Calling the police in terms of threats is best in those situations. Using a weapon would not be. The term "self-defense is a defense to neglegence" is used to those who have claimed that they have commited self-defense when it was reality, it was murder since the "attacker" who did not commit any physical/deadly/malicious actions. Usually, letal self-defense actions are commited through fear of one's life. I hope this answers your question.
If you are not convicted of a crime, there is no reason that your property should be confisctaed.
The Kleck Gun Study found that firearm ownership is common in the United States and that guns are used more often for self-defense than for criminal purposes. The study also suggested that owning a gun can help deter crime and protect individuals from harm.
No.
Marc MacYoung has written: 'Street E & E' -- subject(s): Hand-to-hand fighting, Self-defense 'Safe in the city' -- subject(s): Crime prevention, Self-defense
R. D. Yadav has written: 'Law of crime and self-defence' -- subject(s): Self-defense (Law)