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Is it possible to pitch a perfect game and not effect the averages of the opposing team?

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βˆ™ 2005-11-14 08:04:48

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if you are talking about a complete game,the only way would be if it were the second game of the season and they were no hit the first could pitch 5 perfect innings or so and have a teammate give up 10 runs the rest of the way,or the team fields 9 players with no at bats Yes. If everyone on the other team has a .000 batting average then nobodies batting average would change. The previous answers are correct, but let me discuss a bit of misinformation I seem to hear a lot. One common answer is that this happened when Bob Feller pitched a no-hitter on opening day one year, that everyone had a .000 batting average entering the game, and after the game, they stayed at .000. This is actually a fallacy. Since no one had batted yet, prior to the game, their batting averages were not .000, they were undefined. (Remember, batting average is hits divided by at-bats. Everyone had zero at-bats prior to the game, and you can't divide by zero.)

2005-11-14 08:04:48
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