Yes. It is not a synthetic, and is derived from the opioid family.
yes
Morphine is of the opioid family, which are all depressants/downers. :)
An opioid
Yes. Derived from morphine.
Basically, yes. Percocet is a combination of oxycodone hydrochloride and acetaminophen (Tylenol™). Morphine, like oxycodone, is in the opioid family. Addition by Echo646: Morphine is stronger than percocet, however, and it can be more addictive and more likely to cause dependence, so even more care should be used when taking morphine. Every other opioid is judged by how well they treat pain compared to morphine.
yes
as an opiate or opioid
morphine, demerol
Morphine is an Opiad if that is what you mean. That means that it is derived for opium which comes from poppies. Similar to heroin.
In equianalgesic doses, they are identical. In fact, all opioid medications are equally potent in equianalgesic doses.
methadone acyclic analog of morphine or heroin acts on the same opioid receptors as these drugs
Dilaudid is from the opioid family of medications. It will show up as a positive result for opioids or narcotics. Other drugs which will generate the same result are morphine, heroin, fentanyl, percocet.
yeah it will show up as n opioid