There are no descendants of Macbeth the Scottish king inaccurately portrayed in Shakespeare's play. He had no children of his own, only a stepson by his wife's first marriage. There are of course people nowadays whose surname is Macbeth but they are no relation. The name means "son of Beath" so could belong to any family with an ancestor called "Beath", just as someone called Robertson is descended from someone called Robert way back when.
The name of Macbeth's thandom is Cawdor.
Macbeth. She said "Hail, Macbeth!" In fact all three witches say exactly the same thing.
yes
No, Banquo has a son called Fleance. In Shakespeare's play it is unclear whether Macbeth has any children. The historical King Macbeth had a stepson, Lulach (son of Lady Macbeth and her first husband Gillecomlan) who succeeded him as king.
He's called King Duncan.
Scotland was where it is today, north of England.
William Shakespeare wrote plays called Twelfth Night and Macbeth.
familiar
Probably "Tomorrow and tomorrow and tomorrow creeps in this petty pace from day to day" from Macbeth
The play is called Macbeth because the story centers around Macbeth. Although Lady Macbeth is an important character, she is only the second most important character. In addition, Shakespeare had a habit of naming plays after kings, even if the king is not the most important character in the play (as in Henry IV Parts 1 and 2 and the three parts of Henry VI). So even if you think Lady Macbeth was as important as Macbeth (and I suggest that's tough to argue), the play is still called Macbeth, because he did not write a play called Queen Margaret even if she's more important than Henry VI her husband.
If Macbeth and his wife stood trial today, she would probably receive a greater sentence than he. She hatched the plot and incited him to do the deed.
No, actually Macbeth is in the play called "Macbeth." The Merchant of Venice is a different play, with entirely different characters, but both are in the category of Shakespearean plays.