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Yes, in fact Mexico gained it's independence from Spain on September 16, 1810

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13y ago
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8y ago

Yes. From 1521 until 1821 Mexico was an overseas territory of the Spanish Empire.

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7y ago

Not only that; from 1521 until 1821, Mexico was an overseas territory of the Spanish Empire, known as the New Spain.

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12y ago

Yes, in 1519

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6y ago

Yes Mexico was once controlled by Spain.

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12y ago

From 1521 until 1821.

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Q: When did Mexico belong to Spain?
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Related questions

Whom did New Mexico belong to in 1770?

Spain.


Did California belong to Spain when John Tyler was in office?

NO, NO, NO! Who are you!? It was either controlled by Mexico or the US. Spain mainly controlled S. America and did control Mexico before the US was formed.


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The real question is this, "Was Mexico New Spain"? But YES. Yes indeed. It began with the Spanish conquest of the Aztec Empire in central Mexico (the Valley of Mexico in central Mexico) in 1521. Meanwhile, Portuguese explorer, Ferdinand Magellan arrived into the Philippines in Asia and claimed the Philippines for Spain. In 1543, Ruy Lopez de Villalobos had named the Philippines "Las Islas Filipinas" (The Philippine Islands in Spanish) in honor of Philip II of Spain. Philip II was the KING of Spain and Portugal, but was originally born in Spain. And so, the Philippines was named after Philip II of Spain. Spanish colonization began in the Philippines when Spanish explorer, Miguel Lopez de Legazpi arrived in the Philippines from Mexico (New Spain) in 1565. From 1565 to 1821, the Philippines was a territory of New Spain, which IS NOW Mexico because when the Spanish conquered the Aztec Empire in Mexico, the Spanish had claimed the Aztec Empire as "NEW SPAIN". So Mexico became New Spain. Also, New Spain, including the Philippines in Asia, was governed by the Spanish from Mexico City (formerly Tenochtitlan). Mexico City was the capital of New Spain. Mexico City is also the capital, largest city, and federal district of Mexico.


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Where did Mexico and Spain fight?

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