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No. Spain did not exist during the lives of Isobel and Ferdinand. Each of them were monarchs of their respective kingdoms. Their monarchies were united in one monarchy when inherited by their grandson Carlos I. That was the beginning of modern Spain.

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Q: Was Navarre incorporated with the kingdom of Spain by Ferdinand and Isabella?
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Who did king Ferdinand and queen Isabella drive from their kingdom?

Moors


When did Kingdom of Navarre end?

Kingdom of Navarre ended in 1620.


When was Kingdom of Navarre created?

Kingdom of Navarre was created in 824.


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Why did Spain sponsor Columbus instead of a spanish explorer?

"Spain" did not exist as a political entity at the time of Coumbus' explorations. His explorations were financed by King Ferdinand of Navarre and isabella Queen of two kingdoms; the Kingdom Castile and the Kingdom of Leon. Neither monarch ever relinquished their sovreignty to the other even though they ruled together. The three kingdoms were first united when the grandson of Isabella and Ferdinand inheirited all three kingdoms in 1516. The three kingdoms formed the core of what became Spain. The grandson ruled as Phillip I. They gave him money and ships.


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There was not a king and queen of Spain in 1495. Ferdinand II ruled Aragon and co-ruled Leon and Castile with Queen Isabel I. Isabel I was Queen of Castile and Leon and co-ruled Aragon with Ferdinand. They ruled those three kingdoms together but were only the Monarchs of their own kingdom(s). Consequently they were not the monarchs of Spain. Nor were their children. Spain was only unified when all three kingdoms were inherited by their grandson Charles V, Holy Roman Emperor in 1516. At that point it became one kingdom


When was the Kingdom of Navarre founded?

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What wars did The Kingdom of Aragon fight before 1598?

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